On Thu, 29 Jan 2015 14:56:13 -0800 (PST), "Peter T. Daniels"
<
gram...@verizon.net> wrote:
>On Thursday, January 29, 2015 at 3:42:01 PM UTC-5, Joe Fineman wrote:
>> Justin Thyme <
Justi...@nowhere.com> writes:
>>
>> > When I first came cross Noam Chomsky I assumed (for no good reason)
>> > that his first name was pronounced like gnome. More recently I have
>> > heard it pronounced like no-am by people who I thought might know.
>> > More recently still I have heard gnome. Can somebody who actually
>> > knows please tell me how his name should really be pronounced.
>>
>> Wikipedia, like others on this thread, makes it gnome. I was startled
>> to see that; I had always followed the analogy of Noah.
>
>that's different, because the a in Noah isn't "real" -- it's a "furtive
>patach"
And why is that not real? Everyone I've ever heard pronounce the word
Noah, and that is many people, pronounces the a, and for that matter,
puts it in a separate syllable from the o. How is that not real? How
could it not be real when they pronounce it?
(For those who don't recognize the term furtive in the context of
Hebrew, it refers to cases of words ending in heh (pronounced like an
H), het (prounced like a guttural H) or ayin, (also with a weak guttural
sound) which are written with a patach underneath the final consonant.
In most cases, all other cases I t hink, a vowel is sounded AFTER the
consonant it is under, but not with a final heh, het, or ayin. Then
it's sounded BEFORE the consonant. So Noach is not pronounced Nocha,
ruach is not pronounced rucha, and poteach is not pronounced potecha,
Instead what looks like cha is pronounced ach. Because that is how
the words are pronounced. This is, I'm 99% sure, the only exception
in Hebrew to words not being pronounced as they are written. )
> (usually said in Latin), which intervenes between a non-low vowel
>and a syllable-final "guttural."
And the same thing with the name Noach. Everyone I've ever heard
pronounces the a in Noach, not as part of a dipthong, but as a separate
vowel in a separate syllable. That is also many people,
What difference does it make that the patach is placed under the last
letter of Noach? Instead of being under a blank space preceding the
last letter?. Writing represents sounds, not the other way around.
In another post you say wrt Noah, and I'm sure wrt Noach:
>Furtive patach doesn't make a new syllable. If "Noah" occurred in Hebrew
>poetry, it would scan as one syllable.
I sort of agree that a furtive patach doesn't make a new syllable. It's
the other way around. There IS a second syllable, because that is how
everyone pronounces it. If someone thinks the furtive patach doesn't
adequately represent that, the problem is in the way the word is
written, but it doesn't change the way the word is pronounced.
WRT the second sentence: Can you give me an example of Noah or Noach in
Hebrew poetry where it's scanned as one syllable? I doubt it, but
maybe you can find one squeezed into one syllable in the same way that
even and ever are respelled and then scanned as one syallble in English
So, can you show me that it's not scanned as two much more often than
it's scanned as one?
Everyone I know but you thinks Noah in English and Noach in Hebrew and
Noam in Hebrew are two syllables,