Giganews
unread,Aug 21, 2012, 8:03:46 PM8/21/12You do not have permission to delete messages in this group
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What is the rational for the rule that a batted ball that goes over 1st or
3rd base is fair even if it lands in foul territory?
In yesterday's game between the White Sox and the Yankees, the 3rd base
umpire (who was properly positioned to judge the situation) ruled that a
line drive that landed in foul territory was a fair ball because it passed
directly over 3rd base. For some reason the home plate umpire overruled him.
This call could easily have affected the result of the game.