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non debet homo occidere

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mayer.g...@gmail.com

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Jan 11, 2009, 8:01:47 AM1/11/09
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Hello:

I'm wondering about the exact sense of non debet, as in Aquinas'
words:

Et ideo non debet occidere matrem et baptizet puerum

Does "non debet occidere" mean:

- does not have to kill

- must not kill

Because of the importance of baptism and the question of unbaptized
babies, both translations *could* make some sense. How would one
decide?

Thanks,

Mayer

Johannes Patruus

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Jan 11, 2009, 9:08:39 AM1/11/09
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The correct text would appear to be: "Et ideo non debet homo occidere matrem
ut baptizet puerum." (Summa IIIa q.68 a.11 ad 3):
http://www.corpusthomisticum.org/sth4066.html

"Should not kill" according to one translation, and this seems to be
contextually appropriate.

Patruus

Ed Cryer

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Jan 11, 2009, 9:17:43 AM1/11/09
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"Johannes Patruus" <inv...@invalid.invalid> wrote in message
news:6sucr8F...@mid.individual.net...

Very interesting point when you look at the full context;
http://tinyurl.com/a26wz4
The gerundive in the previous sentence is obviously a moral
recommendation, and then comes "debet".
I'd go for staying within a moral recommendation; as with Patruus above.

Ed


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