Another thing to distinguish is the difference between classical Latin
and Koine Greek natural syntax.
Latin fell dramatically when Christian Greek influence from the NT moved
in; but it had been in danger for centuries from Hellenism.
Your use of a present participle is endemic to Greek, but not Latin.
Cicero, Caesar, Sallust, Tacitus, Pliny wouldn't have used it. Not that
they didn't know Greek; but that they knew the difference. Just as we
know the difference between, say, French and German and English. Or, at
least, intellectuals do; and we are the ones who can sift "there are"
from the hideous "there is" with a plural following.
Ed