Is there any difference between the prefixes (antefixes?) and is there
any logic or pattern to which gets used?
'Pre' is Latin, and 'ante(i)' is Old English or Greek; so 'pre' is more
likely to be used before words of Latin extraction.
I think that's about as much logic as you'll get out of it.
--
Mark Wallace
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But you get ante-natal care in the UK, but pre-natal care in the USA.
In terms of a pattern, I suggest (just from instinct, without
taking time to reflect on this) that "pre" is used in referring
to a single event or item or to a (relatively short) period with
both a beginning and an ending clearly defined, whilst "ante"
refers to (relatively long) periods of time where only the ending
is defined, and not at all to events. But that is just tired,
horribly sober and completely uninformed instinct speaking. And
by "relatively" I mean relative to the "post" period.
--
Redwine
Germany
> MC wrote:
>
> > Pre-Columbian and pre-prandial, but antebellum and antediluvian...
> >
> > Is there any difference between the prefixes (antefixes?) and is there
> > any logic or pattern to which gets used?
>
> 'Pre' is Latin, and 'ante(i)' is Old English or Greek; so 'pre' is more
> likely to be used before words of Latin extraction.
> I think that's about as much logic as you'll get out of it.
According to AHD:
pre- prefix
1. a. Earlier; before; prior to: prehistoric. b. Preparatory;
preliminary: premedical. c. In advance: prepay.
2. Anterior; in front of: preaxial.
[Middle English, from Old French, from Latin prae-, from prae, before,
in front.]
ante- prefix
1. Prior to; earlier: antenatal.
2. In front of; before: anteroom.
[Latin, from ante, before.]
If this is correct, both can claim Latin roots...
I found a word that takes both prefixes:
prenatal and antenatal
1)
Is there any difference between them? And if so, I wonder if the
difference supports your instinct in some way.
2)
Are there any other such words?
> I found a word that takes both prefixes:
>
> prenatal and antenatal
>
> 1)
>
> Is there any difference between them?
Yeah. A pondian difference.
--
Dena Jo
(Email: Replace TPUBGTH with denajo2)
Actually, I'd be quite worried if I needed either, what with me being male
and all.
Yikes!
OED says the same. It must have either been added to Latin from Greek, or
worked its way into Old English and Greek from Latin.
It would probably be a nightmare, trying to find out the details.
That's because there was a shortage of n's during in the US after
WWII, until around 1970. They felt that ante-natal couldn't be used
it would have required 2 of them.
Or maybe it was a shortage of r's in the UK.
s/ meirman If you are emailing me please
say if you are posting the same response.
Born west of Pittsburgh Pa. 10 years
Indianapolis, 7 years
Chicago, 6 years
Brooklyn NY 12 years
Baltimore 17 years
am = "ante meridian", which is, I believe Latin. The Greek "anti", of
course, means something entirely different.
A pedant will be along any moment to assure you that "meridiem" is
really the word, but I couldn't possibly comment.
Matti
Well, the Greek used it as 'plus' or 'and', so I can't really argue with
that.