In English, unvoiced consonants after the /s/ sound often become
voiced. Examples: 'expect', 'steer', 'scale' (in which /p/ -> /b/,
/t/ -> /d/, and /k/ -> /g/).
Is there a name for this phenomenon? Is this a special case of a more
general pattern of phoneme translation? If so, what's the general
pattern?
Thanks.
As a linguist, with training in phonetics, I would probably just call it
voicing.
>Is this a special case of a more
> general pattern of phoneme translation? If so, what's the general
> pattern?
My own opinion is that it is not actually voicing which you have observed,
but, rather, deaspiration. In English the stop phonemes /p/, /t/, and /k/
are aspirated word-initially and are unaspirated following /s/. To many
speakers of English, an unaspirated stop sounds so similar to voiced stops
that they are perceived as being voiced. I have noticed this perception with
the speakers of a Native American language with whom I have worked since
1975. Their language has phonemic unaspirated stops, and in some contexts
these stops become unaspirated. Their language has no voiced stops. But
because the speakers have learned to read English, they perceive the
unaspirated stops as being voiced, when, in fact, they are not.
The vocal cords are not vibrating for phonemic stops in any of their English
allophones, at least not as far as I am aware, for any English dialects.
The vocal cords do vibrate for phonemic English /b/, /d/, and /g/, as in
"bird," "dog," and "girl."
FWIW, there are some languages (I think Korean is one) which has all three
series of stops: unaspirated voiceless, aspirated voiceless, and voiced.
Wayne
----
Wayne Leman
http://www.geocities.com/translation_information
Thanks for the explanation. Two further questions, if I may: is there a
rule that governs when unvoiced consonants are deaspirated after /s/?
(My understanding is that unvoiced consonants after /s/ are not always
deaspirated. Example: 'exasperate'). Is /s/ the only phoneme in English
that causes such deaspiration, or is there a more general pattern?
> Wayne Leman wrote:
> >
> > "D.A.K." <use...@host.domain> wrote in message
> > news:3DEE3968...@host.domain...
> > >
> > > In English, unvoiced consonants after the /s/ sound often become
> > > voiced. Examples: 'expect', 'steer', 'scale' (in which /p/ -> /b/,
> > > /t/ -> /d/, and /k/ -> /g/).
> >
> > My own opinion is that it is not actually voicing which you have observed,
> > but, rather, deaspiration. In English the stop phonemes /p/, /t/, and /k/
> > are aspirated word-initially and are unaspirated following /s/.
>
> Thanks for the explanation. Two further questions, if I may: is
> there a rule that governs when unvoiced consonants are deaspirated
> after /s/? (My understanding is that unvoiced consonants after /s/
> are not always deaspirated. Example: 'exasperate').
It happens at the beginning of a syllable. If an English speaker
thinks of the word as /Eg z&s pR eIt/, then the /p/ will be
aspirated. If they think of it as /Eg z& spR eIt/, then it won't be.
And this is a test that can be used to determine where the syllable
boundary is for a given speaker.
> Is /s/ the only phoneme in English that causes such deaspiration, or
> is there a more general pattern?
/s/ is the only phoneme in English that can be followed by a voiceless
stop in a cluster at the beginning of a syllable, at least in common
words. It's hard to tell whether it generalizes. If I lisp "splat"
to /Tpl&t/, I get aspiration. On the other hand, a friend of mine
makes a Lebanese dish called, I believe /ftaIr/ (or at least that's
how I think of it), and I don't seem to aspirate the /t/.
--
Evan Kirshenbaum +------------------------------------
HP Laboratories |Bullwinkle: You sure that's the
1501 Page Mill Road, 1U, MS 1141 | only way?
Palo Alto, CA 94304 |Rocky: Well, if you're going to be
| a hero, you've got to do
kirsh...@hpl.hp.com | stupid things every once in
(650)857-7572 | a while.
One of those occurrences of "unaspirated" should have been
"aspirated", right?
> Their language has no voiced stops. But
> because the speakers have learned to read English, they perceive the
> unaspirated stops as being voiced, when, in fact, they are not.
...
> FWIW, there are some languages (I think Korean is one) which has all three
> series of stops: unaspirated voiceless, aspirated voiceless, and voiced.
Don't Sanskrit and some of its descendants have all four, including
aspirated and unaspirated voiced stops? Bhagavad-Gita, dharma, ghee.
--
Jerry Friedman
<snip>
> > My own opinion is that it is not actually voicing which you have
observed,
> > but, rather, deaspiration. In English the stop phonemes /p/, /t/, and
/k/
> > are aspirated word-initially and are unaspirated following /s/. To many
> > speakers of English, an unaspirated stop sounds so similar to voiced
stops
> > that they are perceived as being voiced. I have noticed this perception
with
> > the speakers of a Native American language with whom I have worked since
> > 1975. Their language has phonemic unaspirated stops, and in some
contexts
> > these stops become unaspirated.
>
> One of those occurrences of "unaspirated" should have been
> "aspirated", right?
Yes, Jerry, you have sharp eyes. The last word of my paragraph should have
been "aspirated."
>
> > Their language has no voiced stops. But
> > because the speakers have learned to read English, they perceive the
> > unaspirated stops as being voiced, when, in fact, they are not.
> ...
>
> > FWIW, there are some languages (I think Korean is one) which has all
three
> > series of stops: unaspirated voiceless, aspirated voiceless, and voiced.
>
> Don't Sanskrit and some of its descendants have all four, including
> aspirated and unaspirated voiced stops? Bhagavad-Gita, dharma, ghee.
I wondered if I should mention the languages of India or not. I don't know
if they have all four, but they do have voiced aspirated stops.
Wayne
----
Wayne Leman
A good pun is its own reword.
>
> --
> Jerry Friedman
--Odysseus