A quarter to eight

[Eddi]

Is there any difference between these two sentences? Are they both correct?

I get up at a quarter to eight
I get up at quarter to eight

Eduardo
Cadiz: Andalusia (Spain)

[hund...@my-deja.com]

In article <947ro5$509$1...@mercurio.cica.es>,

No difference at all, and yes, they are both correct.

Sent via Deja.com
http://www.deja.com/

[meirm...@erols.com]

In alt.english.usage on Thu, 18 Jan 2001 22:28:45 +0100 "Eddi"
<efc0...@averroes.cica.es> posted:

>Is there any difference between these two sentences? Are they both correct?
>
>
>I get up at a quarter to eight
>I get up at quarter to eight

If I'm not mistaken, the second is colloquial. Maybe they both are,
but the second moreso. Use it in speech and you'll sound more like
you were born in the States than I do.
>
>
>Eduardo
>Cadiz: Andalusia (Spain)
>

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[Daniel James]

In article <947ro5$509$1...@mercurio.cica.es>, Eddi wrote:
> Is there any difference between these two sentences? Are they both correct?
>
> I get up at a quarter to eight
> I get up at quarter to eight

"I get up at a quarter to eight" is fine.

Peole might answer the "what time do you get up..." question by just saying
"quarter to eight", but I don't think many would say "I get up at quarter to
eight" without the "a". (Though it might sound as though that was what
they're saying - especially if you asked at 07:46!)

Cheers,
Daniel.

[Christopher ONeill]

<meirm...@erols.com> wrote in message
news:8sdf6tge0v8sb4ruv...@4ax.com...

now to me, <I get up at quarter to eight> would be the standard form, <I get
up at a quarter to eight> sounds overly formal,e ven stilted - though still
clearly correct.

I'm a british english speaker so perhaps this just shows how much variety
there can be in correct englishes.

What to people on the newsgroup feel about <I get up at a quarter of eight.>
(same meaning) which is a form I heard often among first-language
English-speakers in non-English environments (among the ex-pat community in
Benin and Zaire among others).

[Dr Robin Bignall]

'A quarter of eight' is an American usage, to my mind.

--

wrmst rgds
RB...(docr...@cwcom.net)

[JB]

Dr Robin Bignall wrote:

> 'A quarter of eight' is an American usage, to my mind.

American usage, meaning MY usage, of course, is:

We say "of" or "till" when abbreviated: "It's [a] quarter of/till.",
where the hour is understood through context. We say "to" when
mentioning the hour: "It's [a] quarter to eight". But seldom "of"
together with the hour, i.e., "[a] quarter of eight".

"[a]" means optional and equally used.

--JB

[meirm...@erols.com]

In alt.english.usage on Sat, 20 Jan 2001 22:03:46 GMT JB
<EMAILTO...@carolina.rr.com> posted:

>Dr Robin Bignall wrote:
>
>> 'A quarter of eight' is an American usage, to my mind.

It may only be in the US, but a quarter to eight is what I grew up
with. I probably first heard a quarter of eight in Indianapolis.
Didn't like it then, don't like it now.

>
>American usage, meaning MY usage, of course, is:
>
>We say "of" or "till" when abbreviated: "It's [a] quarter of/till.",
>where the hour is understood through context. We say "to" when
>mentioning the hour: "It's [a] quarter to eight". But seldom "of"
>together with the hour, i.e., "[a] quarter of eight".

I've heard all of them from native-born usan's

>"[a]" means optional and equally used.
>
>--JB