>On Nov 18, 2023, ChristRose wrote
>(in article<
fsrhli5r4iatvsseg...@4ax.com>):
>
>> 1 John provides profound insights into
>> discerning the spirits and recognizing
>> who belongs to God and who is aligned
>> with the devil. This discernment is
>> critical for maintaining the integrity
>> and purity of our faith, especially in a
>> world where false teachings and
>> deceptive spirits abound.
>>
>> 1. Confession of Christ's Incarnation (1
>> John 4:2-3)
>
>He was not incarnated. That word was never used in scripture.
So hey, Robert, I was noticing here that
you're speaking in English. In fact,
nearly every explanation you've ever
given about what the Bible means, is
written in English.
Did you know, Robert, that the Bible was
not originally written in English, but
in languages like Hebrew, Aramaic, and
Greek? So what that means, Robert, is
that NONE of the words you've used to
convey your understanding of the Bible,
and NONE of the words in your English
Bible are actually "in scripture". Your
English translation, and everything
you've ever said about what the Bible
means (except when you cited the
original languages), uses words that are
"never used in Scripture".
See, what happened is, they used English
words that have the same meaning as the
original languages, to translate copies
of Scripture into terms that you,
Robert, could understand.
So the question is not whether some
English or Latin or German word is "in
Scripture" (none of them are), but
rather whether the word we use carries
the same meaning as the words and
teachings in Scripture.
>Incarnation comes from the Latin incarnatus, which means “to make flesh.”
“And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt
among us, (and we beheld his glory, the
glory as of the only begotten of the
Father,) full of grace and truth.” (John
1:14, KJV 1900)
Robert endorses the KJV as a reliable
translation of the Bible. Robert claims
"incarnation" means the same thing
("make flesh") as the KJV translates it
("made flesh").
Thanks Robert, for confirming that
"incarnation" is an accurate term to
refer to the fact that Christ "was made
flesh" (John 1:14, KJV).
>The word incarnation came to life in religious contexts and is used when
>talking about gods and deities that take on human or animal forms. More
>generally, the word can be used to refer to anything or anyone taking on a
>"new life" — the new season of a sitcom could promise a new incarnation for
>one of its characters, or a former fashion trend could come back as a new
>incarnation.
Since Robert has already confirmed that
"incarnation" accurately conveys the
meaning that Christ was "made flesh"
(KJV), his argument is actually that
it's wrong to use the word "incarnation"
because it can also be used to mean
other things (such as to refer to a
pagan god or a fashion trend).
However, there are many instances in the
New Testament where the Greek word
"theos" (?e??), meaning "God," is used
to refer to a pagan deity. In Acts
12:21-22, during an event involving King
Herod, the crowd acclaimed him as a god.
The passage reads, "So on a set day
Herod, arrayed in royal apparel, sat on
his throne and gave an oration to them.
And the people kept shouting, 'The voice
of a god and not of a man!'". In this
context, Herod was acknowledged as "a
god" (theos) by the crowd, but clearly,
this was not in reference to the God of
the Bible
Acts 14:11: In this passage, after Paul
heals a crippled man in Lystra, the
crowds begin to call Paul and Barnabas
gods in human form, referring to them as
"the gods [theoi] have come down to us
in human form!" This is a clear instance
of the use of "theos" in a plural form
to refer to perceived pagan deities.
Acts 19:26: Here, Demetrius, a
silversmith in Ephesus, acknowledges
that Paul's ministry is turning people
away from the worship of the goddess
Artemis. He says, "you see and hear how
this fellow Paul has convinced and led
astray large numbers of people here in
Ephesus and in practically the whole
province of Asia. He says that gods made
by human hands are no gods at all." The
term "gods" here (again "theoi" in
Greek) refers to the pagan gods, in this
case, Artemis, who was worshiped in
Ephesus.
In 1 Corinthians 8:5: Paul writes, "For
even if there are so-called gods,
whether in heaven or on earth (as there
are many 'gods' [theoi] and many
'lords')," acknowledging the existence
of many gods and lords in the pagan
worldview. Here "theos" is used to refer
to these so-called gods of the pagans.
The Bible itself uses the same word for
God (theos), which pagans used to refer
to their deities and gods. So is Robert
going to stop using the word "God",
simply because it's also possible for
someone to use it to refer to a mere
man, or some other deity than the one
true God? Of course not.
Conclusion
1. The problem here, is not that the
word "incarnation" is not used in
Scripture. None of Roberts English words
he uses to explain the Bible, or the
words used in the English translations
Robert approves of (e.g. the KJV) are
actually "in Scripture". They are all
alternate words which carry the same
meaning as the original words of
Scripture.
2. The problem here is not that to "make
flesh" is an inaccurate meaning to
express the teaching of Scripture.
Robert agrees incarnation means to "make
flesh", and he supports the use of the
KJV bible, which translates John 1:14 as
that the Word was "made flesh".
3. The problem here is not that
"incarnation" can possibly be used by
pagans and others to refer to things
other than what the Bible teaches is
good and right. The Bible itself
regularly uses words that pagans and
others use to convey meanings other than
what the Bible endorses as being good
and right. For example, it uses the same
word "theos" to refer to the one true
God, that the pagans use to refer to
their "god" or "gods" which they
worship.
What then is the real problem here? The
problem is that at best, Robert is an
imbecile who doesn't know what he's
talking about, and an hypocrite who
doesn't practice what he preaches.
Worse, it's possible Robert is actually
a tool. He may be manipulated by
spiritual forces and his own bitter envy
and ego (James 3:15) to routinely
oppose, seek to undermine, and to turn
people away from an accurate
understanding of the Bible.
>> This is a fundamental test. The passage
>> says, "Every spirit that acknowledges
>> that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh
>> is from God, but every spirit that does
>> not acknowledge Jesus is not from God."
>> The Greek term "homologei" (confess)
>> implies a deep, personal conviction, not
>> merely a superficial acknowledgment.
>> Therefore, any spirit or teaching that
>> denies the full humanity and deity of
>> Jesus Christ is not of God.
>
>Jesus was conceived. That he dwelt here on earth in the form of a Human does
>not mean he was “implanted in flesh”, if you think about it, and claim
>that he was then who is the believer?
Who said Christ was "implanted in the
flesh"? I didn't say that. You did. You
claimed above that "incarnation" means
to "make flesh".The KJV translates it
that the Word was "made flesh" (John
1:14). Why are you now introducing a new
definition of the word?
>Does not God dwell in the hearts of the Born Again believers? Are not the
>bodies of the believers counted as the Tabernacle of God? Are not the
>Believers told to treat the Body as such? If so, then is not the Born Again
>Believers the incarnation of God per your chosen definition of the word.
>
>How can you say that if applies to Jesus but not his followers? Meaning
>“incarnation”. Did not the Greek gods choose to dwell in animals, and humans?
Do you not believe the Holy Spirit
indwells believers (Ephesians 1:13)? If
so, why are you then trying to
contaminate that, by associating what
the Holy Spirit does with that which is
evil?
>To make the belief of incarnation as the line of demarcation between those
>that are Christians and those that are not is absurd.
As you observed above, "incarnation"
means to "make flesh". John 1:14 says
the Word was "made flesh" (same meaning
as "incarnation"). 1 John 4:2-3 says
that to deny Jesus has come in the flesh
is an indication that one is not of God,
but of the Antichrist. God could not
come to earth in the flesh, without
being "made flesh" (incarnation).
>By Faith one believes in Jesus, and those who do will bear the fruit of the
>tree they were grafted in to. Those that do not bear the fruit of the spirit
>are not of God.
Which is why 1 John 4:2-3 says those who
deny Jesus is come in the flesh are not
of God but of the Antichrist.
>That said, the “testing of the spirits” does not mean some sort of a
>litmus test for who is and who is not a Born Again Believer,
Not. There. Just refuted your claim.
Sorry. Now you have to go back to the
drawing board and come up with another
idea, since I said "not".
>but it was to do
>with the spirit world, the spirits of the evil one as opposed to God and His
>spirit. For this we have the gift of discernment by the Holy Spirit.
By using the phrase "pure idiocy", I am
giving you the benefit of the doubt. I
am assuming you may only be ignorant of
what the Bible teaches.
What you claim here ignores and denies
the immediate context and application of
such statements in 1 John. For example,
right after referring to the spirit
which is not of God and which is of
Antichrist, John states:
“You are of God, little children, and
have overcome them, because He who is in
you is greater than he who is in the
world. They are of the world. Therefore
they speak as of the world, and the
world hears them. We are of God. He who
knows God hears us; he who is not of God
does not hear us. By this we know the
spirit of truth and the spirit of
error.” (1 John 4:4–6, NKJV)
Who is the "they" who "are of the
world", and who "speak as of the world",
and whom "the world hears"? Those who
deny Christ has come in the flesh. Who
are those who are "of God"? The "We"
whom John is addressing are of God.
This is clearly contrasting the
born-again believer who is of God, with
those people who are of the world and
the Antichrist. That is what it means to
test the spirits. It is a litmus test
for who is from God, and who is from the
Antichrist. You are badly mistaken at
best.
>You speak via the traditions of men as there is no such thing in the Bible as
>Incarnation.
How do you fail realize that none of the
English words you now speak, or that you
have ever spoken to convey your
understanding of what the Bible means,
or that are in any of the English
versions of the Bible which you
recommend (e.g. KJV), are actually "in
the Bible". The Bible was not written in
English. Copies of the Bible were
translated into English, using words
that carry the same meaning as the
original languages (or as close as we
could get in English).
I'm sorry, but you are truly an
imbecile, Robert. And that's giving you
the benefit of the doubt. It assumes you
just don't know any better and are
ignorant. Based on the way you routinely
offer such idiotic arguments to contend
against solid Bible truth, it seems
likely that it's something brought about
through demonic wisdom that stirs you up
to envy and selfish ambition (James
3:15).
>People are possessed of evil spirits not incarnated. The very
>definition of incarnation proposes that the being incarnated is not longer
>under their control, and are the very being who know occupies the command
>center of the being. This is just the tip of the iceberg of that topic.
1. Again, you've evidently changed your
definition of "incarnation" from to
"make flesh" to "to indwell flesh" (see
above).
2. The Holy Spirit indwells believers
(e.g. Ephesians 1:13). To try and make
the Holy Spirit evil by association,
simply because pagans teach that their
gods indwell humans, shows the danger of
your fabricated teaching.
3. I never claimed people were
incarnated by evil spirits. That would
mean that people are made human flesh by
evil spirits. People are made flesh by
God, not evil spirits.
>Jesus was both God and Man, now he is both God and redeemed man.
What do you mean Jesus _is_ both God and
redeemed man? Jesus did not sin, or
therefore need to be redeemed Himself.
Jesus is now both God and a glorified
man, but not a redeemed man.
Or did you mean to say something like
that "Jesus is both God and He has
redeemed men who trust in Him"?
>Thus our high priest forever and eternity. And we will be like Him when
>he returns and redeems our bodies.
>
>Jesus was the second Adam.
This was never disputed, and does not
distinguish you as someone who just
refuted error. At best you're a
contentious imbecile. More likely,
you're operating on demonic wisdom that
compels you with envy and selfish
ambition to oppose and try to undermine
that which is sound Bible teaching.