Thoughts on Matt 17 // Mark 9 // Luke 9

[Andrew]

In <a
href="http://groups.google.com/groups?dq=&hl=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&oe=UTF-8&group=alt.bible.errancy&selm=b168ovcfnd2ae52cca4nh8mjpf1pcfjo57%404ax.com">
this post</a> Jude argues that the there is a discrepancy between
Matthew and Mark and Luke regarding the number of days detween a
sermon of Jesus and his transfiguration.

According to IH Marshal (NIGTC, in loc.), 8 days could refer to 1) a
Hellenic week (as opposed to a Jewish 7-day week) or inclusively to a
7-day week (cf. John 20:26). In any case, the "hwsei" prefixed to this
number lets us know that it is only approximate, with the probable
basic meaning of "about a week after 'logous toutous'". To me it seems
reasonable to take "after 6 days" as equivalent to "after
approximately a week."

[Also note that in Greek, the object of the preposition 'after' is
'these words,' not 'about 8 days'. The gramatical construction used
here is explained in Blass & Debrunner (10th ed), s. 144]

Theos Boethos,

Andrew.