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Mike, et al;
I don't understand why R Squared (R2) is not normally used as a test criteria? With an R2 above 0.96, we know that the equity curve is fairly consistent, hence low risk. The other test criteria would be a max intra-trade drawdown be less than 20% - perhaps less. Now the Net Profit may not be as great however, the system would be "tolerable" to trade. What am I missing?
Thanks.
Red
MikeBryant
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Jun 29, 2024, 1:12:53 AM6/29/24
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Who says it’s not? That’s why the program contains the correlation coefficient.