Yes, yes, yes, yes, yes. I know Godwin's Law. Which is not a law, after all.
Now I didn't make the comparison, Reich did. And Reich is correct when he compares Trump's stratagems with those employed by the aforementioned individuals, Hitler included.
With that in mind, can you think of something significant to contribute, rather than just running for cognitive cover under the umbrella of a specious trope? Godwin's "Law" is merely a conceptual safe harbor for people who believe it is impossible to have rational comparative discourse about Hitler, who think that discussing Hitler in reference to any other human being throughout recorded history can involve only over- or under- statement.
What if we say, for example, that Hitler used inflammatory political speech much in the same way that Trump is now doing? So we are comparing Hitler to Trump? Is that legitimate? And if so, why not the converse? It is not an intrinsic fallacy simply to use Hitler as a comparative exemplar.
Hitler was a fascist. And he did employ much the same conceptual demagoguery as Trump is now employing. As far as I can tell, no major presidential candidate has ever employed such hate-filled, segregationist, and polemical speech. (At least not since the Civil War.) Now what does that say about a significant constituency of the American electorate? Perhaps in relation to people in Germany circa 1930? Think hard.
P.S. It can be argued that the above employs an ad hominem attack, violating my proscription. However, I take slight allowance of it in light of the foregoing responses which were clearly designed to summarily shut down all further discourse.