Why can using this kind of argument mislead you?
When can a similar argument be a good one?
Is this argument flat-out nonsense, or is it weak Bayesian evidence? (http://lesswrong.com/lw/aq2/fallacies_as_weak_bayesian_evidence/)
Why do people make this argument? Does it have roots in cognitive biases? In useful heuristics?
If this is a fallacy in moral arguments, can it be a good argument to humans with not-too-uncommon moral preferences?

We'll be running through this list, or a similar one:
http://rationalwiki.org/wiki/Logical_fallacy

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