Hi William
I have come across a few articles namely on Bloomberg about Quantitative Easing and the whole inflation/deflation story that the US faces. One of the comments I have read is that QE is inflationary as the actions of the FED are akin to ‘printing money’ and will create inflation.
I am trying to understand from reading previous posts if this statement is true.
My understanding/logic is that when the FED participates in QE they buy for example a fixed amount of Treasury securities which is ‘monetization’ of debt. This creates a cash deposit for the seller in a bank account and a reduction in the outstanding treasury debt. As a result all that has happened is the quantity of reserves in a bank have increased. Which would imply the result of QE is to increase the amount of reserves in the banking system (I am ignoring the benefit of a lower yield curve from the QE action). By having a lot more reserves in the system this would not imply higher inflation. I guess this may be true in a normal functioning lending environment as it would be equivalent to downward pressure on Fed Funds rate. If however the system has been flooded with reserves for so long why would the FED repeat and do something which will have little or no effect?
I also read a comment saying deflation is always reversible in a fiat economy as there is potentially unlimited supply of $ so the currency is debased? Is this true
I hope what I have said is clear and I welcome your feedback on this.
Thanks sheraz
Hi William
I have come across a few articles namely on Bloomberg about Quantitative Easing and the whole inflation/deflation story that the US faces. One of the comments I have read is that QE is inflationary as the actions of the FED are akin to ‘printing money’ and will create inflation.
I am trying to understand from reading previous posts if this statement is true.
My understanding/logic is that when the FED participates in QE they buy for example a fixed amount of Treasury securities which is ‘monetization’ of debt. This creates a cash deposit for the seller in a bank account and a reduction in the outstanding treasury debt. As a result all that has happened is the quantity of reserves in a bank have increased. Which would imply the result of QE is to increase the amount of reserves in the banking system (I am ignoring the benefit of a lower yield curve from the QE action). By having a lot more reserves in the system this would not imply higher inflation. I guess this may be true in a normal functioning lending environment as it would be equivalent to downward pressure on Fed Funds rate. If however the system has been flooded with reserves for so long why would the FED repeat and do something which will have little or no effect?
I also read a comment saying deflation is always reversible in a fiat economy as there is potentially unlimited supply of $ so the currency is debased? Is this true
I hope what I have said is clear and I welcome your feedback on this.
One thing about our flat to deflationary economy is that people on Social Security will not get a Cost Of Living Adjustment.again this year. Very few in congress actually know anything about rules for S.S and Medicare. They keep thretening to raise the age of retirement so they don't know that is already happening. You are no ,longer able to be "fully retired" at age 65. It went up to 65 and 8 months and is scheduled to continue rising to age 68. . .. . --- On Mon, 10/18/10, William Hummel <wfhu...@ca.rr.com> wrote: |
The correct word for describing the nonlinear flipping process is
bistability. This is bistable switching. When the debt load grows
to a certain value (the switching point), any small fluctuation then
suffices to flip the system from an expansionary mode to a
contractionary mode. -- John Hermann
Thanks for the commentary, another question I was thinking about was with Japan and how they have been struggling for many years with deflation and low growth..Surley they have the required tools and have used QE on several occasions but there is no real success and rates are extremely low and have been for a long time. I find it interesting and somewhat concerning if the US was to follow a similar path as of Japan but could this really happen?
From:
understan...@googlegroups.com
[mailto:understan...@googlegroups.com] On Behalf Of William Hummel
Sent: 18 October 2010 18:05
To: understan...@googlegroups.com
Subject: Re: inflation or deflation
On 10/18/2010 9:19 AM, Sheraz Hussain wrote:
Thanks for the commentary, another question I was thinking about was with Japan and how they have been struggling for many years with deflation and low growth..Surley they have the required tools and have used QE on several occasions but there is no real success and rates are extremely low and have been for a long time. I find it interesting and somewhat concerning if the US was to follow a similar path as of Japan but could this really happen?
----- Original Message -----From: William HummelSent: Monday, October 18, 2010 10:04 AMSubject: Re: inflation or deflation
----- Original Message -----From: Mark BachmannSent: Monday, October 18, 2010 11:49 AMSubject: Re: inflation or deflation
----- Original Message -----Sent: Monday, October 18, 2010 11:49 PMSubject: Re: inflation or deflation
If the banks issue more loans, they increase leverage, but the banks are
already over-leveraged and threatened with insolvency if asset prices fall
further. Law suits are now urging, for example, Bank of America to take more
billions of bad loans back from pension funds, which would add leverage. BOA
took over Countrywide, and lots of bad paper went through that paper mill.
So why should FED encourage banks to increase leverage when bad asset
disputes are threatening to force huge increased leverage back onto the
banks?
So FED is not encouraging more bank loans. It bought over $1 Trillion in
Fannie/Freddie paper in 2009.
According to one paper I posted a while back (lost the reference), deposits
at FED of Fannie/Freddie, China, and other foreign interests are permitted
to be lent below the Fed funds target rate. So the FED funds transactions
below 0.25 mean Fannie/Freddie and/or Foreign FED depositors are probably
the primary lenders in this market recently, consistent with the $1 Trillion
plus FED paid Fannie/Freddie during QE.
Since these QE purchases piled up in the banks creating excess reserves, to
keep this money out of the markets, FED pays interest above the operating
FED funds rate.
This strategy would accomplish the primary objective of helping banks
de-leverage (income from excess reserves can be booked to retained earnings
as capital and used to buy Treasuries, which helps deleverage the system)
and very slowly identify and clear the bad loans from bank balance sheets,
which threaten further insolvency if the price of toxic assets keeps
plunging, or if banks are required to take back toxic paper via litigation
pressure.
Joe
----- Original Message -----
From: "Darren Bedwell" <darren.e...@gmail.com>
To: "Understanding Money" <understan...@googlegroups.com>
Sent: Tuesday, October 26, 2010 2:09 AM
Subject: Re: inflation or deflation
----- Original Message -----From: William HummelSent: Tuesday, October 26, 2010 1:42 PMSubject: Re: inflation or deflation
William,Can't Fed absorb a loss on its MBS if that is what best serves the markets and stability of the financial system?
Is not the real challenge of unwinding its position mostly one of not disturbing the markets with surplus MBS which would depress prices of comparable assets already trading and on the books of financial institutions? The comparable MBS are held by banks, pension funds, 401(k) investors, and all sorts of folks who panic during asset price deflation, so Fed must walk a tightrope to permit some asset price deflation or asset price moderation with triggering commodity price inflation. Whether it makes a gain or loss should not matter to the Source of liquidity since it will always be able to pay salaries and operating costs absent a riot in the streets and rejection of its Federal Reserve Notes as money.
----- Original Message -----From: William HummelSent: Tuesday, October 26, 2010 3:36 PMSubject: Re: inflation or deflation
There is a lot of money in Credit Default Swaps. Why help make things solvent when you have bets on default? This is a crazy way to run an economy. It is a "tug of war" game and those betting on default seem to be winning. If we eliminated profits from default, there would be more effort toward recovery for all. --- On Tue, 10/26/10, Joe Leote <tech_a...@verizon.net> wrote: |
It seems to me that we are trying to put small bandages on a seriously wounded financial/economic system. We need structural change to a system that is in serious trouble. I am not sure anyone knows how to make those changes or if they do, they are unwilling to make them. America is in a fundamental world-wide economic shift. "The rise of the rest" as Fareed Zakaria puts it in his book "The Post-American World." Our present system is no longer geared to lead in the rapidly changing global economy. The last time we did lead it was along a path to financial ruin. |
--- On Tue, 10/26/10, William Hummel <wfhu...@ca.rr.com> wrote: |
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