I think it is mos relevant to point out that when confronted with an
argument he can't refute, Ray resorts to his favorite fallacy, the
"poisoning the well".
>> You still don't get why people have taken your "argument" apart. To
>> support a claim, it is not enough to point at any arbitrary observation
>> and exclaim "see!"
>>
>
> The observation at issue isn't arbitrary. It describes the current surface of earth accurately: overrun with water/dominated by water.
It is arbitrary because you have consistently failed to establish its
relevance to your claim.
>
>
>> To use an analogy, I could "disprove" the flood account by pointing at
>> carrots and say "see, there are lots of carrots, hence no flood". Even
>> though it has the exact same form as your claim, it obviously would not
>> be in any meaningful way a support for my claim. Rather, I would need to
>> show why exactly the amount of carrots that we observe is inconsistent
>> with a flood. Not enough though would be to simply add: "But
>> self-evidently, observing carrots is inconsistent with a flood" - that
>> would be "begging the question"
>>
>
> Since the issue is amount of water, and its origin, your analogy about carrots is irrelevant, meaningless.
So let's add "analogy" to the list of words you don't understand the
meaning of. The purpose of an analogy is always to change the context or
content to illustrate an issue with something that is structurally similar.
My carrot argument has the exact same structure as your water claim.
That is all that is needed for an analogy
>
>
>> So in general, supporting a claim requires (at least) two
> things, some
>> (minor) premises stating observations, and a major premise in the form
>> of a general law that links these observations to the claim made. That
>> general calm in turn can be in need of support - why should anyone
>> believe that this general premise is true?
>
> These comments describe the goals of positivism: identify laws in nature to explain how nature operates.
A commitment shared with "natural" theology (as opposed to revealed
theology), the paradigm you claim you are using, and to which you commit
yourself anyway the moment you are talking about observation as evidence
for your claims.
That's how natural theology is meant to work, so either do it right or
not do it at all.
> First off, supernatural epistemology explains nature differently. We do not assume absence of God.
You don't have to. My argument shows the flaws of your claim with or
without a god intervening.
> Therefore we do not assume a material origin automatically. Supernaturalism uses Biblical epistemology to establish origins and facts about nature. Thus natural laws or nomianism isn't a goal of Supernaturalism.
It is for natural theology, though it interprets these laws as being
grounded in and evidence for god.
>
> Biblical epistemology assumes Theism true thus words spoken by Theos, by definition, should have direct correspondence with reality past, present, and future.
Fine, then you do revealed theology. Reason and observation stop to
matter at this point.
>Case in point: Theos said a worldwide flood occurred. Reality today corresponds: surface appears flooded, overrun with water. This is how we establish facts: word----thing = fact.
Even if one grants the first part, "theos said that worldwide flood
occurred", the second part still does not follow. Your argument is
fallacious whether or not there is a deity involved. in fact, it is even
more inconsistent if you take a theological position (i.e., what you say
is not just illogical, but also blasphemous)
Assume god caused a flood, in just a few days. Does this mean we should
expect 3000 years or so more water than there was before?
Well, only if you think God was able to cause a flood in a very short
time, but was unable to then clean it up in the same short period of
time. God, the way you describe it, is then more a petulant teenager who
manages to thrash his bedroom, but is too lazy/stupid/incompetent to
clean up after himself.
And that is just one of your problems. Again, the observation of an
earth covered by 70% water does not mean that there is an excess of
water that needs/can be explained by a flood. For this you would need
scriptural support (if you go by revealed religion) It is just as
possible that God created the world initially covered with 90% water,
and after the flood it was drier, not more wet then before.
Or he could have created it with 70% water, and restored it after the
flood to just the way it was before This is the most natural reading of
the Genesis story, I would argue - after all, Gen 8.14 says: "By the
twenty-seventh day of the second month the earth was completely dry.
Note: "completely dry". Not: "a bit drier but still incredibly wet."
Or he could as your model says have created the world with less than 70%
of it covered in water, and the flood increased water levels.
All these three are compatible with observing that the earth is now
covered with 70% water. It you want to decide which of these three is
true, you need, in your "theological" epistemology, scriptural evidence
on how much water there was before the flood. You have not given any,
and there is indeed none in the bible.
But of all the 3, your reading is the one least supported by scriptural
(or revealed) evidence. I already mentioned Gen. 8.14 which directly
contradicts your claim. There is other, more circumstantial data that
contradicts your reading. God simply advice Noah to "build an Ark",
specifying only its general size and form. That is more consistent with
a reading that Noah knew already about shipbuilding and shipping - which
in turn means that in his part of the world ( probably Egypt) the water
levels pre-flood were high enough to allow seafaring. Just as they are
today of course - you need today's water levels to have a maritime
culture in Egypt. And after the flood is over, there is no mentioning
that any of the countries that existed previously were now gone, which
would after all be quite remearkable and require instructions to Noah on
how to survive in such a radically altered world ("going home" e.g.
would not be an opinion)
So your argument fails on logical, scientific and theological grounds -
quite an achievement!
>
>>
>> In your case, you offer an observation: 70% of the earth surface are
>> water. That's fine and dandy, nobody doubts that. You then claim that
>> this is evidence for the flood. That means you now need a major premise
>> of the form : "Only when there has been within a few thousand years a
>> major flood should we expect to find more than X amount of the earth
>> surface covered in water"
>>
>> It is this premise for which you have failed to give any support. And as
>> I said, you could, using the same observation, build as easily a claim
>> that there was a major drought. In this case, I simply proclaim that the
>> fact that only 70% are covered in water shows that there must have been
>> a massive loss of water at some point from which the earth has not
>> recovered yet.
>>
>
> These comments contend correspondence epistemology somehow deficient.
Nothing in there about correspondence epistemology whatsoever. You offer
one explanation of an observation, I simply show that the very same
observation that you offer is just as consistent with two others that
directly contradict your claim. And that, as a mere matter of logic,
means you have failed to support your claims.