On 5/14/15 11:19 AM, Bob Casanova wrote:
> On Wed, 13 May 2015 12:41:43 -0700, the following appeared
> in talk.origins, posted by Robert Camp
> <
rober...@hotmail.com>:
>
>> On 5/13/15 10:41 AM, Bob Casanova wrote:
>>> On Tue, 12 May 2015 11:38:28 -0700, the following appeared
>>> in talk.origins, posted by Robert Camp
>>> <
rober...@hotmail.com>:
>>>
>>>> On 5/12/15 10:42 AM, Bob Casanova wrote:
>>>>> On Mon, 11 May 2015 12:17:20 -0700, the following appeared
>>>>> in talk.origins, posted by Robert Camp
>>>>> <
rober...@hotmail.com>:
<snip>
In which case, if we're to extrapolate from this to the analogous
situation regarding interracial couples, you should have no problem with
reservation of the term "marriage" to apply only to same-race couples.
My guess is that you would not accept my extrapolation. My suspicion is
that your reasons for that would be similar to mine,
- because there may well be a justified desire on the part of
interracial couples to have their unions be seen as every bit as
deserving of respect as any other, and
- because there may well be intent lurking behind such a reservation
which would eventually manifest itself in less "apparently" benign ways
>> Am I right in taking your answer to mean that you would not characterize
>> denial of the use of the label "marriage" to interracial couples as
>> either selfish or disadvantageous? I don't want to put words in your
>> mouth, but considering your response it's the only position that makes
>> sense.
>
> What I think is that it would make no difference in
> conferring advantage, *as long as the law made no
> distinction*.
The history of separate-but-equal suggests otherwise.
>>> And FWIW, I agree that your example would constitute an
>>> absurdity, since "interracial", as you use it, is a purely
>>> local and recent idea not shared over most of the world for
>>> most of history, unlike the idea of male-female unions.
>>
>> In most of the world for most of history races did not have the
>> opportunity to mix (not that any of the above is actually relevant to
>> the issue here). And if you think the modern notion of "male-female
>> unions" is in any way generalizable to what has happened throughout
>> "most of history" you really need to revisit history.
>
> You're probably correct, so I'm sure you can provide cites
> to information regarding those many times and places in
> history when and where "marriage" didn't involve both males
> and females in such a union.
You appear to have misread. Let me repeat with emphasis - "if you think
the _modern notion_ of "male-female unions" is in any way generalizable
to what has happened throughout "most of history" you really need to
revisit history."
<snip>
>>>> "Separate but equal" never seems to work out too well for the disadvantaged.
>>>
>>> Somehow I knew that particular canard would appear. Just
>>> FYI, "separate but equal" was used to enforce policies the
>>> results of which, by intent, were anything *but* equal; not
>>> the case in this scenario, in which *all* rights and
>>> privileges, with the trivial exception of the term used to
>>> describe the relationship, are shared equally.
>>
>> You're going to a lot of trouble to ignore a direct response to my
>> analogy. Would it have been reasonable to deny use of the label
>> "marriage" to interracial couples given that all other privileges were
>> equal? It's a simple question.
>
> Reasonable? No, not really. But the point is irrelevant.
An interesting conclusion, considering it is directly analogous to the
issue we're discussing.
>> And it's generous of you to inform me of the intent of "separate but
>> equal," but you seem to have substantially missed the lessons learned.
>
> Not really; I even stated that the effect of the policies
> was by intent; I left it to you to know that the
> (unofficial, but quite real) policies assured continuing
> segregation and unequal treatment.
I'm having difficulty parsing this. I'm not sure it's worth pursuing,
but if you wish to clarify it might help.
>> The purpose of the doctrine was to enable governmental mandate of
>> equality of facilities etc. The outcome in many cases, unfortunately,
>> was to provide cover for maintenance of second-class status. Thus there
>> were different "intents" involved. Your comparison of the stated intent
>> of the doctrine in one case with the intent of those hoping to maintain
>> the status quo in the other, is specious.
>
> I didn't reference the *stated* intent; I assumed you'd know
> that I was referring to the *actual* intent of those who
> wanted to maintain the status quo ante. Apparently I should
> have spelled that out; my bad.
Still having trouble figuring out what you're saying. However I don't
think it will make much of a difference. If your point is to say that
the lessons of the era of separate-but-equal don't apply in this case
because of some fundamentally important difference between racial
prejudice and sexual-preference prejudice then I don't think you've made
that case.
>>> FWIW, I support the rights of individuals to have whatever
>>> relationships they want, from none to line or group
>>> marriage. I don't support the hijacking of a term, used for
>>> thousands of years in multiple cultures, to make the
>>> hijackers "feel good".
>>
>> I'm sorry you feel that way. That opinion seems, to me, to be based upon
>> little more than bigotry, considering that it doesn't pass the history
>> test ("used for thousands of years in multiple cultures"), the empathy
>> test (it's disturbing that you can reduce an entire class of
>> individuals' desire for equality to wanting to "feel good"), and
>> apparently cannot stand the light of a simple analogy.
>
> I find it interesting that you assert without evidence that
> marriage was not used for thousands of years in multiple
> cultures,
That was poor composition on my part. I meant to harken back to your
implication that what we know today as a male-female union is
generalizable to what happened for "thousands of years in multiple
cultures," but I left out important context. Suffice it to say that
lumping, say, the last two hundred years of marriage with the kind of
unions that preceded it, under the same label, as if that represents a
continuous tradition, is misguided at best.
> and that you feel that a term used is as important
> (or perhaps even *more* important?) than the practice (and
> that anyone who argues otherwise is by definition a "bigot"
> regardless of the fact that that person fully supports the
> practice in question, as I do).
I don't think I implied any of those things about the terms used.
Neither do I believe that anyone who argues otherwise is a bigot - I
assume I haven't heard all possible arguments.
But bigotry is a loaded term and I probably should have elaborated on my
remarks. We're all bigoted to some extent. I don't think it's reasonable
to expect there to be no bigotry, just that people attempt to understand
and mitigate those impulses. What prompted my assessment of your
attitude was the diminution of a just cause by use of terms like
"hijackers" and "feel good." That kind of evaluation seems, to me, to
come from a place of bitterness, not tolerance.
However, even if my assessment of your motives is accurate, I certainly
don't mean to suggest that it negates, or even mitigates to any great
extent, the totality of your position, which is obviously substantially
non-discriminatory.
> Perhaps you could comment on the discussion elsethread, in
> which the idea of completely removing reference to
> "marriage" as a legal term *for everyone*, and letting
> whoever wished to use it otherwise do so? Seems a win-win to
> me...although it may not to anyone more intent on fomenting
> discord than on making actual progress in social acceptance
> and personal interactions.
It may not. Of course the perception of who is fomenting discord is
clearly position-dependent.
In any case, your solution would be fine by me, if that's what was
desired by those seeking equality. My guess is that would not be
satisfactory to the homosexual community (though I can't say for sure).
You may rejoin that it is unfair not to take into account the
sensibilities of both sides, to which I would respond it most certainly
is not.
As far as I can tell there is nothing about recognition of same-sex
unions as "marriage" that in any way damages, denigrates, or even
inconveniences straight married couples, the institution of straight
marriage itself, or its societal ramifications. Same-sex marriage will
not trouble anything but the delicate sensibilities and restrictive
ideology of a narrow-minded group of people who interpret broad moral
progress as personal persecution (witness Nyikos' petty concerns about
how marriage-rights bigots will be perceived in the future).
Based on the arguments I've encountered so far, this all seems pretty
straightforward: one group wants something for which there is no
reasonable justification they should be denied - yet the other group
still wants to deny them. I have no difficulty understanding why gay
rights advocates might want to be a bit "uppity" in their pursuit of
equality.