Libor 'Poutnik' Stříž wrote:
> Dne 20/10/2017 v 07:46 Thomas 'PointedEars' Lahn napsal(a):
>> Libor 'Poutnik' Stříž wrote:
>>> Dne 20/10/2017 v 00:27 Thomas 'PointedEars' Lahn napsal(a):
>>>> Libor 'Poutnik' Stříž wrote:
>>>>> Dne 19/10/2017 v 22:53 Libor 'Poutnik' Stříž napsal(a):
>>>>>> Dne 19/10/2017 v 22:25 Thomas 'PointedEars' Lahn napsal(a):
>>>> The special-relativistic effect (time dilation due to relative motion)
>>>> of at most ca. −7 µs/d is compensated by (AFAIK) daily synchronization
>>>> of
>>>> GPS satellite time with ground station time. It *has to be* because,
>>>> as I indicated before, the relative speed of a satellite to the GPS
>>>> ground station is _not_ the same for every GPS satellite, so that time
>>>> dilation is different for each satellite or, IOW, the elapsed proper
>>>> times are different.
>>>
>>> As I was corrected by Tom Roberts sometime ago,
>>> -7 us/day is NOT SR correction, but GR correction,
>>> as SR does not apply here.
>>
>> You have it completely backwards. Gravitational time dilation lets the
>> clocks on the ground tick *slower* on the ground than in orbit, so
>> *faster* in orbit than on the ground.
>> *That* is where the 45 µs/d advance of the
>> satellite clocks *would* come from (and *did* come from in the NTS-2 test
>> run), and that is why the satellite clocks were made to tick *slower*
>> than normal from then on.
>
> This I know well.
Then I do not understand why it is not obvious to you that the gravitational
time dilation, the general-relativistic effect, already *has been corrected*
by letting the satellite clocks tick slower. What is left to correct
regularly for timekeeping is only the time dilation due to relative motion,
the −7 µs/d.
>>> It is not caused by the orbit speed itself,
>>> not by relative speed satellite versus ground clock.
>
> I have not said it is.
Are you kidding me? You are quoting your own statement there.
> The point is, it is not SR time dilation,
Yes, it is.
> but GR kinematic time dilation.
How did you get the idea that there would be such a thing? Gravitational
time dilation is a general-relativitistic effect because of differences in
spacetime curvature. Time passes slower at greater spacetime curvature than
at less; slower closer to the center of mass than far away from it; slower
near the surface of a planet than in its orbit. No motion whatsoever has
anything to do with that. (Time dilation due to relative motion is a
*special*-relativistic effect.)
General relativity is mainly a theory of gravitation that describes
gravitation only as an apparent force, the observable effect of the
curvature of spacetime in a region of spacetime, that corresponds to
the density of stress, energy, and momentum there.
> With periodic correctios in order of microseconds per days
Rather _tens_ of microseconds per _day_.
> the GPS system would be unusable.
It would be unusuable as a *time* reference, but I doubt it would be
unusuable for geopositioning, as I just laid out in the other thread.
>>> Notice there are only speed values,
>>> nothing about relative velocities.
>> You are very confused. Speed is nothing but the magnitude of velocity.
>
> Or, you are very confused about what I already know.
> Speed is obviously the magnitude of velocity.
Then why are you talking about a difference between “speed values” and
“relative velocities”?
>> Either you have misunderstood the correction, as what I just said is
>> *confirmed* by Paul’s calculation that *you* have cited, or you should
>> just not believe blindly everything that you read.
>>
>> <
http://www.astronomy.ohio-state.edu/~pogge/Ast162/Unit5/gps.html>
>
> You do not consider your mistake option, do you ?
I do. Therefore I have done the calculation *again*, compared my result
with Paul’s result that *you* cited, and Pogge’s description that *you*
cited (to RLH) and I cited, and found that our results approximately match.
From this I have to conclude that I must have done at least something right
there.
If you do not think that Paul’s calculation and results are correct, if you
are now saying the opposite that he says, then why have you cited it to make
a point? Likewise, why are you citing Pogge when your claims contradict his
explanation?
> Everywhere where I have read about the applied clock rate correction
> was mentioned value 38 and not 45 us/d.
You have not read properly what you have cited. In particular, as I just
pointed out in the other thread, you have not read Pogge’s explanation,
that you had cited too, *to the end*.
HTH
PointedEars
--
Q: What happens when electrons lose their energy?
A: They get Bohr'ed.
(from: WolframAlpha)