Prokaryotic Caspase Homolog...
>You are indeed very mixed up. The Wikipedia article on the Sagnac effect has never stated what you claim it once stated, and I have explained to you how, >on a mobile device, can check this out for yourself.
That is unprovable on a platform that allows rewrites. But that doesnt address the
current claim on wiki that sagnac is consistent with a classical model. Currently
and historically, light was assumed to travel at c relative to the source and that
was and still is true for a classical model. As MMX shows. And incidentally
there are no sagnac setups that rotate at near c , so the pretense that classical
cannot explain these imaginary experiments is bogus pseudoscience on your part.
> Classical theory does not state what you claim that it states,
Show me a link or reference that states that a classical model
predicts that light travels at variable non c speeds relative to its
source.
>although you are unclear because you refuse to specify from what frame light travels at c >relative to the source.
You must have reading problems. I have said numerous times...relative to the
source. If you need a frame. Then try to imagine a frame where the source
doesnt move relative to an imaginary grid reference. Dont forget, classical
theory is not SR. Classical theory is modeled on observation only. Not false assumptions
like SR.
>Relativity is perfectly consistent with the Sagnac effect. So is classical theory, because Sagnac devices operate at low speed where v << c. The wife beating >analogy was to explain how your questions begin with such misguided premises, that there is no way to answer them directly.
( You are obsessed with this subject. But your analogy was a deliberate smear
from a sicko, apart from any suspicious sounding obsession you have with it.
Obviously you havent forgotten the political truth that when mud is slung ,
mud sticks, however unjustified)
If classical theory is consistent with sagnac then how do you explain
the interference shift "classically" when sagnac rotates?
Up till now relativists like yourself said light leaving the source was
shifted in speed at c+-v and therefore the path difference was nullified
by the difference of speed on each path. Hence, till recently, the relativistic
claptrap was that classical predicts a null shift in sagnac when rotating.
Which as we all know isnt observed.
Now, you guys have realized you got the maths wrong. And youve changed
your tune pretending that in fact classical does predict a fringe shift
in sagnac. Yet you havent explained how you think this happens.
So how does classical theory predict a fringe shift in sagnac if you also now pretend
that classical theory cannot have light at c relative to a source? ( another bullshit claim
from relativists that is unsubstantiated.)
Which reminds me. Youd better hurry up and delete all those erroneous
claims on wiki based on incorrect maths regarding the de sitter argument about
how light *supposedly* piles up as it travels towards earth from a rotating
source, in a classical model.
Once again your maths is incorrect. You have light leaving a source
and propagating away from it at constant speed in the earth frame as you
relativists like to claim. But this is bad maths; as if its at a constant speed in the
earth frame, as you relativist wackos on wiki like to pretend, then it will
HAVE TO BE travelling away from the source at a variable speed. Which is neither
claimed nor predicted in any classical model. Nor observed in any experiment.
Pre or post SR.