I think it might be an idea to go a bit slower and have a step-by-step mathematical explanation of this bit:
"That’s precisely right. For example, suppose a 1% yearly LVT is enacted on a parcel of land. Given a risk free rate of return of 3% (the current rate of return for a 30-year T-bill), that’s a present value of 33%. In other words, that tax is economically equivalent to a one-time tax assessment of 33% of the value of the parcel.
But notice that this assessment has no impact on the relative financial benefit of developing the land vs. speculating and holding out for the opportunity to sell it for a higher price in the future. In other words, suppose the estimated net present value of developed land (including the cost to develop it) is X, and the estimated net present value of leaving it vacant in order to sell it in two years’ time is Y. If X is greater than Y, you want to develop it. If Y is greater than X, then you want to speculate.
If a LVT is assessed, it reduces the present value of X and Y by exactly the same amount. So it has no impact on which decision is perceived to be more profitable."
It's not intuitively obvious to me what's going on after reading this.