Was Avroham actually wrong in not slaughtering Yitzchak at the akeidah?

[Aryeh Sova]

The answer is no.

However, the post is not over yet!  This may be a silly question but why wasn't the malach's command to not kill Yitzchak an issue of lav bashamayim hi?  HaShem gave the original tzivui and then a malach gave him a different tzivui instead; how was Avroham allowed to listen to the malach?  According to Rashi, who explains that that the malach was informing Avroham that he misinterpreted what HaShem meant by bring Yitzchak as on oleh, seems to be a classic example where man's interpretation should supersede "Shamayim's" interpretation.

Ramban and some of the selichos seem to imply that it wasn't actually a malach but it was the interceding HaShem who commanded Avroham to stop.

Perhaps, as my rav R' Chaim Twerski suggested to me, lav bashamayim hi did not exist until Moshe (several parshiyos ago).

Is this example different because it came as a nevuah and not just a bas kol?  Does the concept onl apply to klal and not yachid or for a horaas shaah?  Any other thoughts as I have admittedly not done much research

[Jacob Lewin]

I dont rly understand the question. In general, the midrashim indicate that Hashem's commandment was only to "bind" Yitzchak - that is how one can reconcile the conflicting pesukim "ki beyitzchak ikareh lecha zarah" and the mitzvah of the akeidah (the classic "shnei kesuvim ha bayim ke'echad). 

I don't think - as u suggested - this is man's interpreation SUPERSEDING Shamayim's, but that it is built into this commandment to only be "lah olah bnee" and nothing more. If anything, man's (Avraham's) interpretation was superseded by the actual, literal, commandment from Hashem. So, the Malach was just explaining to Avraham what was the right course of action. 

Am I totally off here?  

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[Aryeh Sova]

even if the tzivi is literal, doesn't lav bashamayim hi (LBH) give man the power to interpret as he sees true.  we have the power all the time to interpret mitzvos in non-literal ways.  Avroham obviously darshened the tzivui to mean killing despite the peshat level of the command.  Why should literalness remove man's ability to derive halachik reality?

[Shamshi Szlafrok]

Isn't the gemara in BM 59 mefurash that lo bashamayim hi was only after matan torah?

[Aryeh Sova]

Definitely a valid point.  

However, I don't think it's muchrach that this is what the Gemara means when it says שכבר כתבת בהר סיני בתורה it sounds like the Gemara is laying the foundation for why the concept of LBH exists as opposed to giving the historical account for the concept's origin.  The Torah with its laws and principles were established at Sinai and are thus immutable and unchangeable (as applied by Rambam Yesdoei HaTorah 9:1).  At this point it is all very much academic and perhaps a stretch to say, but is that so different than hearing a direct command from Gd Himself?