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Respected Scholars and Professors,
Humble pranaama-s,I wish to know the correct method of translating "should have" from English to Sanskrit. This form (should have) is used in the Past Tense in English.Here are a couple of examples that I have tried.I should have seen that drama yesterday.┬ард╣реНрдпрдГ рдордпрд╛ рддрддреН рдирд╛рдЯрдХрдВ рджреНрд░рд╖реНрдЯрд╡реНрдпрдореН рдЖрд╕реАрддреН |
In the above example, I have used the passive voice in Sanskrit instead of the active voice in English. To convey the sense of "should have seen", I have used┬а ┬а рджреНрд░рд╖реНрдЯрд╡реНрдпрдореН┬ардЖрд╕реАрддреН. Is this a correct translation? Does it convey the intended sense of the English sentence?┬аPerhaps, I can use the 6th vibhakti form рдордо instead of рдордпрд╛ in the sense of рд╖рд╖реНрдареА рд╢реЗрд╖реЗ. In that case, this would be the translation:┬ард╣реНрдпрдГ рддрддреН рдирд╛рдЯрдХрдВ рдордо рджреНрд░рд╖реНрдЯрд╡реНрдпрдореН┬ардЖрд╕реАрддреН |Here is another example, with a negation included in the sentence.┬аI should not have become angry with him.рдордпрд╛ рддрд╕реНрдореИ рдХреНрд░реЛрдзреЛ рди рдХрд░рдгреАрдпрдГ рдЖрд╕реАрддреН |┬а
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Dear Vishvas Ji,Namaste,Thank you very much for your reply.┬аThank you for bringing the рд▓реГрдЩреН usage to light.┬а
But, I am having some doubts about the usage of рд▓реГрдЩреН in the translation of these English sentences.I hope you don't mind thinking about my doubts.This is the first English sentence:┬аI should have seen that drama yesterday.
The┬ард▓реГрдЩреН usage makes sense only when the part "рддрд░реНрд╣рд┐ рд╡рд░рдореН рдЕрднрд╡рд┐рд╖реНрдпрддреН" (as in your reply) is a part of the sentence.┬а
I do not think that рд▓реГрдЩреН can be used in this translation without the above part of рдЕрднрд╡рд┐рд╖реНрдпрддреН.┬а
This is the 2nd English sentence:┬аI should not have become angry with him.The translation you have given is:┬арддрд╕реНрдореИ рдирд╛рдХреНрд░реЛрддреНрд╕реНрдпрдореНThis does not make proper sense to me.┬аBased on sutras┬ард▓рд┐рдЩреНрдирд┐рдорд┐рддреНрддреЗ рд▓реГрдЩреН рдХреНрд░рд┐рдпрд╛рддрд┐рдкрддреНрддреМ, рднреВрддреЗ рдЪ (3.3.139-40), etc., I think that рд▓реГрдЩреН is used in the situation where there is the possibility of an action in the future or past and the certainty of its not occurring or having occurred.┬а
Thus, for this meaning of possibility to be conveyed, there has to be the use of an "if-then" structure or a question regarding the occurrence of the action. Thus, for рд▓реГрдЩреН to be correctly used, the sentence should have other elements conveying possibility.┬аThe usage of рд▓реГрдЩреН in an if-then structure is quite well-known. I just thought of an example when рд▓реГрдЩреН is used in a question.┬аConsider a teacher, who gave homework to the students, and asks the students the next day about the homework.┬аShe asks, рдХрд┐рдВ рдпреВрдпрдВ рдЧреГрд╣рдкрд╛рдардореН рдЕрдХрд░рд┐рд╖реНрдпрдд ?┬аHere, the usage of рд▓реГрдЩреН shows that she is certain that the students have not done the homework.
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