If I wanted to setup the system to route all my traffic through tor and then that tor traffic through a vpn
Would I simply setup a TORVM with Its netVM being the vpnvm ?
Or can a netVM not have its own netVM?
Thanks for the help
What I can't get my head around is
If I setup a whonix vm which torrifies all traffic and then set a proxy vm as its net vm my thinking of it
From the data packets point of view
You create a dAta packet on your app vm
That dAta packet travels to the whonix vm which sends the packet to first tor node, then to the second until it gets to exit node. The exit node isn't my machine how does that packet then know to go to the vpn?
Wouldn't the exit node have to send that packet back to my local app vm and then to the vpn?
Meaning the exit node knows my IP and so will the vpn provider anyway?
The reason I want to have vpn second is because I want the option of anonymity but I also don't want the end website to know I am using tor.
With this in mind is there any better setup?
Thanks
I'm still thinking my machine is one...
If I get my head into thinking each vm is in fact a seperate machine
Then the packet goes
From app vm -> tor vm then to the proxy vm but what i don't understand is though the tor exit node must need an IP address to send my packet too? Surely to send the packet to my proxy vm it would need my real IP address for which the proxy vm is located?
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One where it goes through tor and then through vpn so that websites don't see I am using tor
So that would need to be whonix WS -> whonix GW -> VPN VM -> net vm
And a seperate system that just uses tor
Which would just be
Whonix WS -> whonix GW -> net VM
If I open two of the above App vms would echo app vm connect to appear as two seperate IPs?
Am I on the right track with this?
Also if I run this will it ensure all traffic goes through tor and vpn no matter what I do? Is there a chance some websites might use different protocols and bypass tor?
Thanks
Thanks