Hello,After all the years I now improve && extend in particular the propositional logic section, I am still stuck with a fundamental question.Is there a good reason why negation is handled differently from the bi-conditional? The definition of <-> is implicit. We learn that it must obey a particular expression, that enables us to retrieve the characteristics of this operator later.
Why on earth is tjhe same not done with negation? One can easily reinterpret axiom ax-3 as an implicit *definition* of negation, thus mandating a renaming to df-neg. The characteristics of negation are then determined likewise.
Looking forward to answers.Wolf Lammen
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It's not a conservative extension, as the intuitionistic logic development makes clear. Peirce's law ((p -> q) -> p) -> p is not provable from ax-1,2,mp
but it is provable from ax-1,2,3,mp, even though there are no negations involved in the statement. By contrast, df-bi is a conservative extension even though it has a peculiar form. This is easy to prove because you can replace (p <-> q) with -. ((p -> q) -> -. (q -> p)) everywhere in a proof using biconditionals to reduce it to a proof which refers to the theorem bijust instead of df-bi, in the original axiom system.
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If you actually want intuitionistic logic, you cannot get away with using just -> and -. as your basis. You have to add in /\ and \/ , but once you have that, you can just use dfbi1 as the definition
> Regarding provability of bijust, it is intuitionistically provable with the standard intuitionistic interpretations of -> and -. . It is an instance of -. ((p -> p) -> -. (p -> p)), which is true because |- p -> p is provable, and so from ((p -> p) -> -. (p -> p)) you can conclude -. (p -> p) and from there, falsity, so -. ((p -> p) -> -. (p -> p)).Of course ! Actually the current proof uses id, pm2.01 and mt2, which are all minimalistic. I should have checked it first ! Therefore, set.mm's df-bi would provide a definitional extension in iset.mm as well, but it would define the "classical equivalence", which is strictly weaker than the intuitionistic equivalence. Is that correct ?
> If you actually want intuitionistic logic, you cannot get away with using just -> and -. as your basis. You have to add in /\ and \/ , but once you have that, you can just use dfbi1 as the definition (and df-bi is really just an obfuscated version of dfbi2 anyway, once you unfold the definition of /\ ).iset.mm's df-bi does not use \/ and seems to be conservative over the axioms for ->, -. and /\ alone, without the axiom for \/ ax-io. Probably you mean in your first sentence the more general statement: *to achieve functional completeness*, you also need /\ and \/ ?