> What's the difference in behavior when a beam of spin 1 particles passes through a SG device, compared to spin 1/2 particles? TIA, AG
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What's the difference in behavior when a beam of spin 1 particles passes through a SG device, compared to spin 1/2 particles? TIA, AG
A W boson would be the only spin1 particle with a magnetic moment. Since it has liftime of 3e-35 seconds I doubt anyone has sent W bosons thru an SG; but in theory they should act just like silver atoms or other particles with a magnetic moment.
Brent
On 4/17/2020 11:56 PM, Alan Grayson wrote:
What's the difference in behavior when a beam of spin 1 particles passes through a SG device, compared to spin 1/2 particles? TIA, AG--
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On Saturday, April 18, 2020 at 11:43:20 AM UTC-6, Brent wrote:A W boson would be the only spin1 particle with a magnetic moment. Since it has liftime of 3e-35 seconds I doubt anyone has sent W bosons thru an SG; but in theory they should act just like silver atoms or other particles with a magnetic moment.
Brent
Then why does Feynman have spin 1 particle responding to a magnetic field? Same question for Clark. https://www.feynmanlectures.caltech.edu/III_05.html . AG