1RB 1LE 0LC 0LB 0LD 1LC 1RD 1RA 0RC 0LA
1RB 1LE 0LC 0LB 0LD 1LC 1RD 1RA 0LD 0LA
0 : G(1, 1)
1 : G(1, 4)
2 : G(8, 3)
3 : G(21, 1)
4 : G(1, 24)
5 : G(8, 23)
6 : G(21, 21)
7 : G(43, 20)
8 : G(84, 18)
9 : G(154, 16)
10 : G(274, 15)
11 : G(484, 14)
12 : G(854, 12)
13 : G(1499, 11)
14 : G(2632, 9)
15 : G(4613, 7)
16 : G(8079, 6)
17 : G(14147, 4)
18 : G(24766, 2)
19 : G(43345, 1)
20 : G(1, 43348)
21 : G(8, 43347)
22 : G(21, 43345)
...
28_832 : G(2533...2210, 0)
Spin out
| | 0 | 1 || :-: | :-: | :-: || A | 1RB | 1LE || B | 0LC | 0LB || C | 0LD | 1LC || D | 1RD | 1RA || E | ??? | 0LA |
G(n, m) = 0^inf <C 0^n 1^m 0^inf
1RB 1LE 0LC 0LB 1RD 1LC 1RD 1RA 0RC 0LA
1RB 1LE 0LC 0LB 1RD 1LC 1RD 1RA 1RD 0LA
1RB 1LE 0LC 0LB 1RD 1LC 1RD 1RA 1LB 0LA
1RB 1LE 0LC 0LB 1RD 1LC 1RD 1RA 1LA 0LA
1RB 1LE 0LC 0LB 1RD 1LC 1RD 1RA 0LB 0LA
But this randomness argument can be turned around. To say that these functions always terminate is to say that they are effective procedures.
It's to say: you can give me any number you want, and I can run it through this weird mod-4 procedure and give you back some output. But why should an apparently random procedure always terminate? We do this 4 -> 7 transformation, throw in a 14 here and an 8 there and ... profit??? Why should we expect that to always work?
Is there any sense in which we can say that a "randomly" chosen Collatz-like function ought to terminate or not? Is termination or non-termination the default assumption?
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