> <
91efd75a-1ffa-4a5c-a205-82f80655e...@v33g2000yqv.googlegroups.com>,
Uh, we're talking about psychologists and psycholinguists of reading?
The ones to whom you just gave the advice to "use"?
> > > There is a lot of evidence that illiterate speakers have little to no
> > > awareness of individual sounds, and that we achieve such awareness
> > > only after learning an alphabetic notation (see Morais et al. (1979)
> > > on Portuguese and Read et al. (1986) on Chinese).
>
> > Or Daniels 1992 on all of the above.
>
> If you were already aware of this evidence, why have you been arguing
> against it?
If you are unfamiliar with the linguistic literature of the 1930s and
the psycholinguistic literature of the 1970s and early 1980s, I
suggest you read my chapter (in The Linguistics of Literacy, ed.
Downing, Lma, and Noonan, selected papers from the 1988 Milwaukee
Symposium).
> > > > But I am quite seriously asking you where you got that dogma. Either
> > > > someone taught it to you, or you read it somewhere, or you made it up
> > > > yourself. (If the last, why have you not written it up for *Language*
> > > > yet?)
>
> > > There is no dogma, other than refusing to accept an unsubstantiated
> > > claim, which I think is a basic dogmatic principle for all scientists.
> > > No one has presented any conclusive evidence that there a drive in the
> > > human brain to minimize how many phonemes it organizes the language
> > > into, ergo, I reject any proposal which uses that as a significant
> > > factor in its analysis. Barring some internal evidence from the
> > > language itself (such as morphophonological alternation), there is
> > > simply no need to decompose, for example, a breathy vowel into /hV/.
>
> > So you're stating that this is your own personal view, that it was not
> > taught to you or presented in any publication.
>
> I'm stating that it's a fundamental principle of science. A claim
> isn't accepted until it has sufficient evidence.
Who has "claimed" that "there a drive in the human brain to minimize
how many phonemes it organizes the language into"?
> > I trust you will extend it to EVERY supposed "theory" of language:
> > your sole criterion for accepting a statement about languae is that
> > there is "conclusive evidence that there is a drive in the human brain
> > to ... organize[ ] the language" in accordance with it.
>
> Where did I say "sole"?
>
> There are plenty of other criteria, such as morphophonological
> alternations.
So you're now claiming that "morphophonological alternations" do not
take place in the human brain? Where, then?
> > > Should I write a one paragraph article stating the above, and then
> > > list every linguistics work that has ever been published to show that
> > > none of them provide the necessary evidence?
>
> > That would indeed be a contribution to the field.
>
> It would likely take more pages than any journal allows for a single
> article.
Is it too difficult for you, then, to make the leap that what you need
to write is a _book_? (Or, of course, a long series of articles spread
over many journals, under a unifying series title.)
> > It is also quixotic, in that NO linguistics work deals with
> > "conclusive evidence [for] a drive in the human brain."
>
> That is false, except for a very narrow definition of "linguistics"
> that a priori excludes any such work.
Cite work -- in linguistics or anywhere else, presumably excluding
psychiatry -- that deals with "conclusive evidence [for] a drive in
the human brain."
Your definition of "drive," BTW, would be useful, too.