I don't separate a priori those things.
>
>
>> It is equivalent with "everything".
>
> Sure. The point is that unless there is a selective bias on that
> collection of Everything, we cannot claim that Everything has any
> particular properties to the exclusion of other possible properties.
> We are forced to say that Everything has *all possible* properties
> simultaneously or, equivalently as Prof. Standish shows, that it has
> no properties at all.
The selective bias is explained by the first person indeterminacy. It
is a relative notion.
"Everything" is usually to big to have properties. What you say does
not make sense to me.
>
>
>> It is the main thema of this list. Assuming everything is
>> conceptually clearer than assuming any particular things.
>> Comp provides only a mathematical instantiation of such approach,
>> like Everett-QM on physical reality.
>
> And that makes it just one of many possible ways to obtain
> ontological theories that one can build coherent explanations
> upon. ;-)
Yes. But comp is quite general, (only one scientist believe in non-
comp, and a few philosophers), and, besides, I use comp to make thing
easier, as the consequences follows from quite string weakening of comp.
>
>>
>>>
>>> "There is a mathematical equivalence between the
>>> Everything, as represented by this collection of all
>>> possible descriptions and Nothing, a state of
>>> no information."
>>
>> You see.
>> But to make this precise you have to be clear of the things you
>> assume (sets, or numbers, or ...). + their elementary properties
>> without which you can do nothing.
>
> Correct,
That contradicts what you said before.
> and we cannot ignore the role of change in our "doings".
Sure. but computer science, and thus arithmetic, explains "change" and
"doing" quite well.
>
>
>>>
>>> This "state of no information" is equivalent to my concept of
>>> the ontologically primitive: that which has no particular
>>> properties at all.
>>
>> I see words without meaning, or with too much meaning.
>
> Try harder! Guess some meaning and see if it 'works'.
I do that all the time. If I didn't I would have stopped to converse
with you. I do that up to the point where I can show that what you say
contradicts comp. Unfortunately, at that stage you try to save your
idea (in the comp context) by fuzzification, and then you lost me.
>
>>
>>> Thus is not not a number nor matter nor any particular at all; it
>>> is the neutral ground. But this discussion is taking the
>>> assumption of a well founded or reductive ontology which I argue
>>> against except as a special case. Additionally, you consider a
>>> static and changeless ontology whereas I consider a process
>>> ontology, like that of Heraclitus, Bergson and A.N. whitehead.
>>
>> Which makes no sense with comp. Just to define comp you have to
>> assume, postulate, posit the numbers and their elementary properties.
>
> Sure, but that works within the domain of human discourse. We
> formulate explanations for each other and ourselves, this does not
> require that our explanation be anything more than "just so' stories
> that we comfort each other with.
If that is what you seek then I understand better why you avoid
studying theories.
>
>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>>
>>>>>>
>>>>>> You refer to paper which use the axiomatic method all the
>>>>>> times, but you don't want to use it in philosophy, which, I
>>>>>> think, doesn't help.
>>>>>
>>>>> You seem to not understand a simple idea that is axiomatic for
>>>>> me. I am trying to understand why this is. Do you understand the
>>>>> thesis of Russell Standish's book and the concept of "Nothing"
>>>>> he describes?
>>>>
>>>> Sure no problem. It is not always enough clearcut, as Russell did
>>>> acknowledge, as to see if it is coherent with comp and its
>>>> reversal, but that can evolve.
>>>
>>> I see the evolution as multileveled, flattening everything into
>>> a single level is causes only confusions.
>>
>> This is just unfair, as the logic of self-reference (and UDA
>> before) explains how the levels of reality emerges from arithmetic.
>
> OK, well can the same self-referencial logic be used to eliminate
> the idea that there is a irriducible ontological ground that has
> some particular properties associated with it?
This is total nonsense for me. Sorry.
> We can expand and contract non-well founded logical structures as
> needed. ;-)
You will still need to define an ontological background for those sets
to make sense. They will have elementary properties.
> The infinite regress that so vexes ordinary logics becomes the
> flexibility that allows self-referential structures to not depend on
> any particular configuration.
That's already the case. I use numbers only because they are familiar.
Any Turing universal system will do.
>
>
>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>>
>>>> Number ---> universal machine ---> universal machine mind (--->
>>>> physical realities).
>>> Dear Bruno,
>>>
>>>
>>> I see these as aspects of a cyclical relation of a process that
>>> generates physical realities. The relation is non-monotonic as
>>> well except of special cases such as what you consider.
>>>
>>> Universal Machine Mind ==> Instances of physical realities
>>> | ^
>>> | \
>>> | \
>>> | \
>>> V \
>>> Number ---> Universal Machine
>>>
>>> All of these aspects co-exist with each other and none is more
>>> ontologically primitive than the rest.
>>
>> OK, like prime number exists at the same level of the natural
>> numbers. But they emerge through definitions that the numbers
>> cannot avoid when looking at themselves, so it is misleading to
>> make them assumed. Only the definition is proposed.
>
> But you ignore the very process that is implied by your words
> "...they emerge through definitions that the numbers cannot avoid
> when looking at themselves..". Looking is an action equivalent, I
> claim, to the computation of a simulation of the content of what it
> is like to experience that "looking". Can a number alone be a
> computer?
Yes. Relatively to the initial theory (like + and *). I will show that
precisely on FOAR some day.
> Not if it can't be implemented physically!
This does not work with comp, because "physically" is defined from
numbers and addition and multiplication.
> A number is merely a representaqtion, such can do many things, but
> they cannot be something that persists yet changes in time. Physical
> objects have 'persistence in time'. Numbers, only exist, they have
> no time or change associated with them.
They have, by the many relations that they have (atemporally) with
universal numbers.
>
>
>> I can sum up your point by: I will not build a scientific theory.
>
> You would be wrong. my theory predicts a few concrete things! No
> ghosts, white rabbits or zombies, for one thing.
I have not seen your theory. You are usually angry when I ask for that
theory.
Let me quote the first paragraph, which says exactly what I tell you
since the beginning: mainly that "neutral" means neither physical nor
mental. Arithmetic is neither mental nor physical.
<<
Neutral monism is a monistic metaphysics. It holds that ultimate
reality is all of one kind. To this extent neutral monism is in
agreement with idealism and materialism. What distinguishes neutral
monism from its better known monistic rivals is the claim that the
intrinsic nature of ultimate reality is neither mental nor physical.
This negative claim also captures the idea of neutrality: being
intrinsically neither mental nor physical in nature ultimate reality
is said to be neutral between the two.
(
http://plato.stanford.edu/entries/neutral-monism/)
>>
>
>
>>
>>>
>>>>
>>>> Once you oppose a philosophical idea to a scientific discovery,
>>>> you put yourself in a non defensible position, and you do bad
>>>> press for your ideas, and for "philosophy". You do the same
>>>> mistake as Goethe and Bergson, somehow.
>>>
>>> OK, but the same advice applies to you as well!
>>
>> ?
>> I don't do literary philosophy.
>
> I do not do literary philosophy either.
Then make you theory into a semi-axiomatic system. But when you say
that your theory assume "existence" I see only prose.
>
>
>> Everything I say can be verified (and has been verified by numerous
>> people, some taking a long time to do so, which is normal as the
>> second part is technically demanding).
>
> Good! So I might wonder why the physical existence of those
> people seems to be denied in your claims of immaterial Arithmeticism.
I have never denied any physical existence. Only primary physical
existence.
> They are all just dreams that exist with no explanation at all!
I explain it entirely in the theory with two non logical axioms:
x + 0 = x
x + s(y) = s(x + y)
x *0 = 0
x*s(y) = x*y + x
I have explained this at length and continue to do this on FOAR. I am
not sure you have understood that I am literal here, with comp as
metatheory, everything is explained (or transform into a math problem)
from just the two axioms above. UDA has already proved that it must be
like that, and AUDA explains constructively how to do the derivation.
Bruno