Arabic Visarga

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Radhakrishna Warrier

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May 8, 2020, 8:43:44 PM5/8/20
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We had a discussion on Sanskrit visarga some time ago.   In that thread, I had remarked that visarga might be the remnant of some consonant that disappeared because of lenition through the ages.   Let me introduce here an Arabic “visarga”.

“Madīna” in Arabic means city.  Any city, not just the famous Madīna where prophet Muhammad is buried.  It is written as “مدينة”.   The last letter (the leftmost) is “ـة” which is actually two dots of character “ta” (ت) placed over the ending or final form of character “ha” (ه) which looks like this: ـه.  This character is called “tāa marbūtaḥ” (let us call it “Arabic visarga”) and is pronounced at the end of the word like a murmured ‘h’.   Sounds like how a Sanskrit visarga might have been pronounced in the distant past. 

The ‘ta’ that disappeared due to the process of lenition resurfaces when another word starting with a vowel is added to the word ending in the “Arabic visarga”.  The city where prophet Muhammad is buried is called Madinatul Munawwara (مدينة المنورة) which is written as Madīnaḥ al munawwara meaning the city of light or the radiant city.  Here, the ‘t’ sound resurfaced because the words “al munawwara” came immediately after Madīnaḥ. 

Other words ending in the “Arabic visarga” behave similarly as described in the case of Madīnaḥ.

 

Regards,

Radhakrishna Warrier

  

Madhav Deshpande

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May 8, 2020, 9:11:12 PM5/8/20
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Dear Radhakrishna Ji,

     The description of विसर्ग in all phonetic texts like the Śikṣās and the Prātiśākhyas is that it is not only a kaṇṭhya sound, it is also an aghoṣa "voiceless" sound unlike ह which is included in the घोषवत् "voiced" consonants.  What happened in the history of Indo-Aryan languages is that the visarga was completely lost in all Prakrits that were the mother-tongues of the later Sanskrit-users.  However, the voiced ह survived in all the Prakrits from the ancient to modern times.  Under the influence of this situation, the pronunciation of visarga was affected and in many regions of India a word like देवै: came to be pronounced as देवैहि.  This is no surprise, as the instrumental plural form reported in Prakrit and Pali exactly matches देवेहि [Skt. ऐ > ए, standard change in Pali and Prakrit]. I am not familiar with Dravidian languages, and don't quite know what influence they had on the pronunciation of Sanskrit in the regions speaking Dravidian languages.  With best wishes,

Madhav M. Deshpande
Professor Emeritus, Sanskrit and Linguistics
University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, Michigan, USA
Senior Fellow, Oxford Center for Hindu Studies

[Residence: Campbell, California, USA]


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K S Kannan

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May 8, 2020, 9:38:59 PM5/8/20
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Could the origin of devehi in the Prakrts be devebhiH in the Vedic,
- rather than just devaiH ((mis-)pronounced/approximated to devaihi)?

This prAkrtisation is already there in the Vedic:
gRhNAmi < grbhNAmi etc.
All the mahAprANa-s seem to be liable to be replaced by the h-sound.



--
Dr. K.S.Kannan  D.Litt.

​Sant Rajinder Singh Ji Maharaj Chair Professor, IIT-Madras.

Senior Fellow, ICSSR, New Delhi.

Academic Director, Swadeshi Indology.

Member, Academic Council, Veda Vijnana Shodha Samsthana.

Nominated Member, IIAS, Shimla.

Former Professor, CAHC, Jain University, Bangalore.

Former Director, Karnataka Samskrit University, Bangalore.

Former Head, Dept. of Sanskrit, The National Colleges, Bangalore.

Radhakrishna Warrier

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May 8, 2020, 9:45:46 PM5/8/20
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Thanks Prof. Deshpande ji, that was very informative. Pronunciation of visarga in Dravidian family languages is also like that in modern Indo Aryan.   Visarga ending "a" is pronounced like "aha", ending "iḥ" is pronounced "ihi", ending "u" is pronounced "uhu" and so on.  Visarga in the middle of a word is treated differently.  Dukha is pronounced dukkha, niḥśēṣa is pronounced niśśēṣa and so on.  In other cases, modern Sanskrit sandhi rules are followed, as in duḥ + yōgam = duryōgam, etc.

Regards,
Radhakrishna Warrier

From: bvpar...@googlegroups.com <bvpar...@googlegroups.com> on behalf of Madhav Deshpande <mmd...@umich.edu>
Sent: Friday, May 8, 2020 6:10 PM
To: Bharatiya Vidvat parishad <bvpar...@googlegroups.com>
Subject: Re: {भारतीयविद्वत्परिषत्} Arabic Visarga
 

Madhav Deshpande

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May 8, 2020, 9:48:09 PM5/8/20
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Dear Prof. Kannan,

     That is clearly a possibility.  However, it is my guess that the pronunciation of Sanskrit as देवैहि was facilitated by the Prakrit देवेहि, and the fact that the voiceless Visarga had completely disappeared from all Prakrits, the mother tongues of the Sanskrit speakers.  But that is my best guess.  Best wishes,

Madhav M. Deshpande
Professor Emeritus, Sanskrit and Linguistics
University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, Michigan, USA
Senior Fellow, Oxford Center for Hindu Studies

[Residence: Campbell, California, USA]

G S S Murthy

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May 9, 2020, 2:32:28 AM5/9/20
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Apropos Prof.Warrier's note, "Pronunciation of visarga in Dravidian family languages is also like that in modern Indo Aryan.   Visarga ending "a" is pronounced like "aha", ending "iḥ" is pronounced "ihi", ending "u" is pronounced "uhu" and so on.", is it considered an aberration and therefore incorrect?
Thanks and regards,
Murthy



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Nagaraj Paturi

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May 9, 2020, 8:45:22 AM5/9/20
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is it considered an aberration and therefore incorrect?

It is not correct to consider that an aberration or incorrect. 



--
Nagaraj Paturi
 
Hyderabad, Telangana, INDIA.


Director,  Inter-Gurukula-University Centre , Indic Academy
BoS, MIT School of Vedic Sciences, Pune, Maharashtra
BoS, Chinmaya Vishwavidyapeeth, Veliyanad, Kerala
BoS Veda Vijnana Gurukula, Bengaluru.
Member, Advisory Council, Veda Vijnana Shodha Samsthanam, Bengaluru
Former Senior Professor of Cultural Studies, 
FLAME School of Communication and FLAME School of  Liberal Education, 
Hyderabad, Telangana, INDIA.
 
 
 

Achyut Karve

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May 9, 2020, 8:51:20 AM5/9/20
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Dear Vidwans,

Is the visarga a consonant sound or a vowel sound?

Is the visarga  not included in the Maheshwar Sutra?

What is the difference between ह and the visarga sound both in terms of effort as well as it's sounding?  If there is none can we not do away with the orthographic sign of visarga?

Has Panini done away with the visarga as Patanjali too includes it in the Ayogavaha letters?

What is the use of naming something if one does not tell what it stands for at least as 'a' as in apple?

Does 'a' as in apple stand for the sound or for the scripted letter 'a' in the word apple.

Lastly, 

'The description of विसर्ग in all phonetic texts like the Śikṣās and the Prātiśākhyas is that it is not only a kaṇṭhya sound, it is also an aghoṣa "voiceless" sound unlike ह which is included in the घोषवत् "voiced" consonants.'

Is the ह in the 5th Sutra of the Maheshwar Sutras and the ह in the14th Sutra of the Maheshwar Sutras one and the same?  Are both कंठ्य sounds?

With regards,
Achyut Karve.






Venkatakrishna Sastry

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May 9, 2020, 10:29:52 AM5/9/20
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Namaste

 

1. On this interesting thread seeking clairty on  ' '   and 'visarga also known as visarjaneeya)  - (stand alone or at the end of a 'pada'  or ' svara-vyanjana)ह     ’  (ह्)ः   - अः  -   इः

     and remotely connecting it to  two '   ' and  two  '   '  s - 

 

The question that haunts my mind is What will be Samskruth with visarga substituted by 'ha  or losong visarga ? Why are we misisng the right pointer given by Prof.Madhav Deshpande invoking Shikshaa and Pratishaakhya? What may be done to bring out the right use of Samskrutham along side regional languages ?

 

2.   The following expression  is most common usage where one can clearly see   -    and  visarga. 

        हरिः ओम्      Would it be proper to write /pronounce this as हरिह्- ओम्   :

 

        Another expression I would draw to limelight here is the expressions ' नमः-शिवाय '    where the modifications of '  visarga' are seen ! ( in script as well as regional pronunciation.)

 

3.      Coming to Panini, if Panini was not clear on the visarga  and ' ' , why would there be rules mentioning the transformations of  visarga and  ' ' - independently ? Is there any  rule in Panini which suggests  visarga to get transformed to '   ' ?

 

4.      In Yoga-akshara perspective of analysis, ' ' is a 'yogavaaha'  - Vyanjana  ; visarga is not.   

         In Yoga-akshara perspective Visarga is ardhaakshara ( which may  be constrcuted as half svara  or half vyanjana !)

 

        Pronunication and effort evidence this.  Bad pronunciation practice and scripting practice (even when widely used) does not make  substitution of visarga by 'ha' to be valid formation; at least in Samskruth.

 

 

5.     An interesting point to observe on how     Gunitakshara / barakhadi  <' vyanjana+svara'>  was taught in scools for the past three hundred plusyears in India  and how  modern digital standards present the same !

 

Classical barakhadi usually ends with  (say for  example  )  as     कं - कः,  मं-मः- हं -ह:  using   अं-अः  This is still common for many indian languages.

In Unicode, Wiki - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tamil_script   the anusavara- visarga combine is not listed.

In Uniocde Wiki- https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Devanagari   the visarga, ha are explained with subtle but clear difference.

 

About difference of visarga uccharana in Brahmi language families   (Samskruth - Prakruth  )  and Arabic is like comparing apples and oranges.  If Samskruth  pronunciation is double layer masked by   overlay of ' Prakruth pronunciation and poor scripting',  should the blame be passed on to Grammarians ?  

 

Regards

BVK Sastry

Balasubramanian Ramakrishnan

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May 9, 2020, 2:55:00 PM5/9/20
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On Sat, May 9, 2020 at 10:29 AM Venkatakrishna Sastry <sastr...@gmail.com> wrote:

Namaste

 

1. On this interesting thread seeking clairty on  ' '   and 'visarga also known as visarjaneeya)  - (stand alone or at the end of a 'pada'  or ' svara-vyanjana)ह     ’  (ह्)ः   - अः  -   इः

     and remotely connecting it to  two '   ' and  two  '   '  s - 

 

The question that haunts my mind is What will be Samskruth with visarga substituted by 'ha  or losong visarga ? Why are we misisng the right pointer given by Prof.Madhav Deshpande invoking Shikshaa and Pratishaakhya? What may be done to bring out the right use of Samskrutham along side regional languages ?

 

2.   The following expression  is most common usage where one can clearly see   -    and  visarga. 

        हरिः ओम्      Would it be proper to write /pronounce this as हरिह्- ओम्   :

 

        Another expression I would draw to limelight here is the expressions ' नमः-शिवाय '    where the modifications of '  visarga' are seen ! ( in script as well as regional pronunciation.)

 



As per kR^iShNa-yajurvedIya shikSha-s an exception to visarga sandhi is the chanting of hariH om at the beginning of a prashna/anuvAka.

Examples:

1. प्रश्नानुवाकाद्यारम्भे सविसर्गोच्चरो हरिः - शंभुशिक्षा 
2. हरिप्रणवमध्येऽपि सन्धिर्नस्यात् प्लुतेषु च  - आत्रेयशिक्षा 

So it's  हरिः ॐ with an actual visarga and not हरिह् ॐ.

Ramakrishnan
 

Ramakrishnan

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May 12, 2020, 8:43:32 PM5/12/20
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Namāṃsi Prof. Kannan & Prof. Deshpande,


>>Could the origin of devehi in the Prakrts be devebhiH in the Vedic,
- rather than just devaiH ((mis-)pronounced/approximated to devaihi)?

This prAkrtisation is already there in the Vedic:
gRhNAmi < grbhNAmi etc.
All the mahAprANa-s seem to be liable to be replaced by the h-sound.

Not really. 

1. 
The vedic forms of Gṛh/gṛbh have no apparent connection with the visarga getting lost in prākṛt, as the h/bh in gṛh/gṛbh is not a visarga, moreover this is a very rare occurrence in my understanding so cannot be extrapolated as a potential phonetic sound shift across the board to all similar words - or putatively attributed to ostensible prākṛtic developments already being present in the prakṛti

2. The phonemic innovation in devaiḥ / *devebhiḥ > devehi (say in pāli) is to the final visarga not to the intervocalic *
-bh- sound. So there is no need to reconstruct a parent form that could have contained a -bh- in it to explain this change.

3. devehi is very clearly derived from devaiḥ. This does not mean pali had lost the ai and the ḥ sounds, and they got replaced by e and hi, that would be a very wrong way to look at it. We have to really go deep into the phonetic issues at play. In Pāṇini's time the *āi > ai & *ai > e (also *āu > au & *au > ochain shifts had not yet happened in sanskrit (which with its several dialects, was the commonly spoken bhāṣā of the day, even after being standardised by Pāṇini). Also to the redactors of the Pali canon who (living not too distant from Pāṇini in time) were very likely not schooled in phonetics or morphology, the *āi and *ai would have sounded too similar to need separate akṣaras in the script so both were represented by the same letter 𑀏 (brāhmī symbol for 'e'). Thus while devaiḥ was pronounced *daivāiḥ by Pāṇini, it was pronounced in much the same way by the redactors of the pali canon, but written as devehi (where both e were expected to approximate the unified ai phoneme of the unschooled person.

4. As to why hi remains instead of the visarga, rather than disappearing altogether, again I disagree with Prof. Deshpande that it was 'lost' in Pali. It did exist in the pronunciation, but to the person unschooled in phonetics, the pronunciation of ḥ and hi would not have been all that different and hence did not necessitate the invention of a new akṣara in their script (that had no letter for it in the first place). The fact that it was still pronounced in speech is abundantly clear from the surviving -hi in devehi, so it was not lost, and neither was this a genuine sound-shift from ḥ to hi, if that were the case duḥkha would not have become dukkha but probably something like *duhakha or *duhukha in pali. If ḥ simply disappeared in speech, it would not have left a geminate -k- in its place either (as in dukkha). So both in devehi and dukkha, the visarga remains in the spoken dialect, but in written Pali the script simply tries to approximate it with the closest sounding equivalent.

5. The question therefore is really about who invented the Kharosthi and brahmi scripts in the 4th century BCE, and to what extent they disagreed (knowingly or unknowingly) with the reality of the sounds in Pāṇini's pratyāhāra sūtras that their common bhāṣā contained. The 4th century BCE is when really the story of writing and of prakritic innovations resulting therefrom, both begin. I consider looking for these "prakritic" sound shifts in the Samhita and Brahmana dialects sounds to me like an anachronic wild-goose chase.

6. To assume that all prakrit was really phonetically spoken exactly as they are represented in writing (just because that is the case for sanskrit) is also to me a completely misconceived notion, that simply has no conclusive evidence to back it up.

7. Therefore I am yet to get convinced that the spoken language underlying Pali (and spoken language underlying the Aśokan edicts) was phonetically or grammatically as different as the written texts (misinterpreted as depicting the spoken language with phonetic accuracy) would seem to indicate. To me Ashoka's spoken language, and the spoken language of the redactors of the pali canon, still had the visarga (although it is missing in the scripts they used).

8. I can also show that ṛ was similarly existing in the spoken languages of the redactors of the pali canon, and in Ashoka's own language, but that again is another long story in phonetics, so I will describe my understanding of it later.

Regards,
Ramakrishnan


2. Secondly if we just focus on one documented register (say Pāli) rather than use catch-all terms like "prākṛt", it would be easier to understand what exactly is being meant. Prakrit is not one single clearly defined register but an umbrella term to denote a mass of inchoate lexical, grammatical and phonetic developments (not all of which are regional, not all of which are vernacular/dialectal and not all of which are grammatical, and not all of which are phonetic/phonemic), so to say that prakrit lost the visarga (and to then look for that already in vedic) seems a very confusing approach. 

3. Thirdly, I take exception to the belief that prākṛtam was a spoken dialect (or set of dialects) in the last five centuries BCE, or worse, even before that. That is not yet conclusively proved, I am yet to see even a single recorded reference from any literature from the BCE period to there being any non-sanskrit spoken language or dialect that was recognized to be "the mother tongue(s) of the sanskrit speakers".

4. Fourthly, I think the idea that visarga was lost, let's say in Pali (rather than prakrit) - is a hasty and very probably incorrect conclusion. As we know Pali introduces doubled/geminate consonants where there used to be a consonant cluster in Old-Indic (but this doubling is not a feature of all prakrit, just of Pali). Pali also introduces this "gemination" (for lack of a better term, since k & kh in dukkha are not really geminates) to indicate the existence of the visarga - Sanskrit duHkha becomes dukkha. If the visarga were simply lost, it would simply have vanished and not left any trace in the resulting Pali word. 

5. Now let's take the example offered by Śrī Deshpande ji, he apparently says devaiḥ simply became devehi in prakrit (assuming he is speaking about Pāli), that does not explain it.

Madhav Deshpande

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May 12, 2020, 9:32:38 PM5/12/20
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Dear Shri Ramakrishnan,

     Thanks for your very detailed message which raises numerous concerns and I don't think I can respond to all of them, even if I knew how to.  I will take just a few points.
     You say "devehi is very clearly derived from devaiḥ."  In my earlier message, I was not so much talking about the derivation of "devehi," but the fact that the Visarga disappears in Prakrits and Pali, while the voiced ह survives.  However, I now tend to agree with Professor Kannan's suggestion that "devehi" is derived from "devebhiḥ."  Why do I think so?  Looking at the forms in Prakrits and Pali like "nadīhi," "mālāhi," "catūhi" etc., it is clear that there is no context of Skt "aiḥ," but in all these forms, the corresponding Skt forms contain "bhiḥ."  So the correlation of Skt "bhiḥ" to Prakrit and Pali "hi" seems very clear to me.
     In your view, the change of Skt "ai, au" to Prakrit/Pali "e,o," is purely orthographic as the early Kharoṣṭhī/Brahmi scripts did not have a way of distinguishing "ai/e, au/o."  This argument does not seem likely in my view.  By all studies of the development of these scripts, these scripts were not originally designed to represent Sanskrit, but all earlier documents are only in Prakrits, and Sanskrit inscriptions appear a few centuries later.  It seems logical to assume that the full range of signs in these scripts to represent Sanskrit sounds missing in Prakrits is a relatively late development, rather than the other way around.
     The last point I want to deal with is your statement that the Pali "dukkha" is simply a Pali way of representing the Sanskrit "duḥkha," because the combination "kkha" does not seem natural to you for some reason.  My reply simply is that all Prakrits and Pali have "dukkha," and even modern Marathi has "dukkha," which no Marathi speaker has any difficulty in pronouncing.  Clearly they are not pronouncing "duḥkha" and believing that they are saying "dukkha."  The first "k" in such clusters as "kkh" is described by the Prātiśākhyas as abhinidhāna which is a pronunciation of a consonant without full release.  In no sense is the pronunciation of "dukkha" phonetically unlikely.
     Now I have lost track of many of your informative explanations and may have to return to them at some later point.  I do appreciate your probing thoughts on these issues, though I may disagree with some of them.  With best regards,

Madhav M. Deshpande
Professor Emeritus, Sanskrit and Linguistics
University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, Michigan, USA
Senior Fellow, Oxford Center for Hindu Studies

[Residence: Campbell, California, USA]

Achyut Karve

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May 13, 2020, 12:00:40 AM5/13/20
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Dear Vidwans,

Reconstruction of voice from script is a demanding exercise even when it is scripted in Devanagari script. 

I have been involved in an attempt to script the compositions of the tabla which are metered to a specific taal.  The tabla wizard Ahmedjan Thirakwa used to make two important remarks, 1) That the compositions cannot be scripted he would say  ये लिखने की चिज थोडी है।  2) He would say ये कॉलेज मे सिखनेकीं चिज थोडी है। There is a popular phrase सीना पसींना in guru shishya parampara meaning that studying an art form is a combined workout for both guru and shishya.

What are the problems in accurately scripting a samhita as is of the tabla ?  Scripting compositions of classical hindustani music is even more demanding.  Can a figure be accurately rebuilt from its caricature?  This is exactly what happens when one tries to rebuild voice forms from script.  The challenges multiply many fold when the scripted material is archaic.

There is one more challenge, i.e. reconstucting voice of an individual and that of a people, a community.  There are differences in voicing from individual to individual.  

Inspite of the existence of shiksha granthas there is a lot of difference of opinions among them to come to any general opinion on the specific nature of voicing script.  Thus to conclude that x, y z people voiced words as x, y, z is too speculative.

With regards,
Achyut Karve.

Roland Steiner

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May 13, 2020, 4:41:38 AM5/13/20
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> devehi

The type Skt. putraiḥ > Pāli putte is preserved only in remnants. In Middle Indian (Aśoka, Pāli, Prakrit), the usual ending of the Instr. Pl. for the masculine a-stems is -ehi. This ending -ehi may be a continuation of Vedic -ebhiḥ or may have been introduced analogously from other declensions. Prakrit also has the suffix -ehiṃ. Aggavaṃsa's Pāli grammar Saddanīti (completed in 1154 in Birma) teaches the interchangeability of -ehi and -ebhi, but after a long vowel -h- (instead of -bh-) is to be expected

See: Oskar von Hinüber: Das ältere Mitteldindisch im Überblick. 2nd enlarged edition. Wien: Verlag der Österreichischen Akademie der Wissenschaften 2001 (Österreichische Akademie der Wissenschaften. Philosophisch-historische Klasse. Sitzungsberichte, 467. Band. Veröffentlichungen der Kommission für Sprachen und Kulturen Südasiens. Heft 20), § 316.

Kind regards,
Roland Steiner


Ramakrishnan

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May 13, 2020, 9:24:29 AM5/13/20
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Dear Prof. Deshpande ji,


>>My reply simply is that all Prakrits and Pali have "dukkha," and even modern Marathi has "dukkha," which no Marathi speaker has any difficulty in pronouncing <<

1. All prakrits do not have "dukkha" because all prakrits do not in these circumstances undergo gemination of the complex cluster unlike Pali. The Ashokan epigraphic language does not do it, the language underlying the north-western Kharoshthi manuscripts (so called Gandhari) doesn't do it, many other prakrit registers too dont have dukkha in place for duḥkha, so I am unable to understand what you mean by saying "all prakrits and pali have dukkha". In fact the kharosthi texts show so many irregular forms for this word (dukha; duho; duṃkha; dokha, duha, dukhu, dokhu, duhe etc) that I am very much inclined to believe these are orthographic irregularities & constraints (compounded by a evident lack of awareness of the phonemic inventory of the spoken language among the writers of these texts) rather than authentic vernacular dialectal forms.

2. Pali and Marathi are not both directly derived from Old-Indo-Aryan so what is true of Marathi is not ipso facto true for the spoken language underlying canonical Pali (and vice versa), so I am unable to accept this analogy. Marathi speakers do not imagine they are speaking dukkha with a visarga, but Pali speakers would have (that is because we here are speculating how the historical spoken language underlying epigraphic Pali, written in Old-Brahmi & Kharoshthi, would have sounded keeping in mind the known limitations of those early scripts and the orthographic conventions that were in use, rather than blindly believe that the spoken language was phonetically represented accurately in writing.

3. All indications are that the spoken language for which the early scripts (brahmi & kharosthi) were invented did not follow a fully scientific (or standardized) mapping of sounds to script, so the early scripts did not allow for phonetically accurate representation of the spoken language. In fact the kharosthi script in its early centuries did not even show vowel length distinctions but this is no evidence to show that the underlying spoken Indo-Aryan language in the 4th century BCE had shed its all its long vowels. It is only an evidence that the script did not allow such vowel length distinctions to be orthographically represented (until that script evolved enough over the centuries to allow fully phonetic representation of the spoken language -- and voila, you have phonetically accurate sanskrit appearing after centuries of apparent written "prakrit" -- when really all that had happened is only that the script had evolved, not so much the spoken language).


4. While you reject the sound shift of pali dukkha from its immediately prior OIA form * duḥkha, where the presence of the of the immediately prior visarga is indicated by the gemination (for lack of a better term) thus resulting in -k(*h)kh- ; I am inclined to believe that the visarga's position in the spoken word was sought to be preserved in writing by the use of an approximating consonant that existed in the script. I am not inclined to believe that the visarga simply disappeared in speech when its position was approximated in writing by the use of a replacement consonant. The need for the gemination in Pali (not in Marathi) arises because the underlying speech in the spoken language underlying Pali orthography still had that visarga. 

5. The -ebhiḥ ending (for -aiḥ in standard sanskrit) was exceptional, it was not the norm in Old-Indo-Aryan.

In canonical pāli too, the same exceptional nature of the -ebhiḥ ending was preserved faithfully in forms such as '...suññā parappavādā samaṇebhi aññehi' (in Dīgha Nikāya - Mahāparinibbānasuttaṃ), 'sukho bhavetha, aññatra bhavantebhi' (Dīgha Nikāya - mahāgovindasuttaṃ), 'karitvā nipuṇebhi vidūhi sabbhi' ( Dīgha Nikāya - Lakkhaṇasuttaṃ), 'yaṃnūnāhaṃ dantebhi dantamādhāya' (Majjhima Nikāya - mahāsaccakasuttaṃ), 'aṭṭhi tacena onaddhaṃ, saha vatthebhi sobhati' ( Majjhima Nikāya - raṭṭhapālasuttaṃ) however the -ebhi (< ebhiḥ) ending is very rare. The usual ending in Pali is -ehi (< aiḥ). Therefore ī am unable to accept this as an argument that all OIA -bhi- became -hi- in Pāli. In fact the bh > h is not consistent so there is no such sound shift that can be considered characteristic, across the board, of Middle-Indic (or even of Pali alone).

Regards,
Ramakrishnan


Madhav Deshpande

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May 13, 2020, 9:56:14 AM5/13/20
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Dear Shri Ramakrishnan,

     I have noted the differences between our views, and I have nothing to add at this time.  With best regards,

Madhav M. Deshpande
Professor Emeritus, Sanskrit and Linguistics
University of Michigan, Ann Arbor, Michigan, USA
Senior Fellow, Oxford Center for Hindu Studies

[Residence: Campbell, California, USA]

Roland Steiner

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May 13, 2020, 10:26:26 AM5/13/20
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> All prakrits do not have "dukkha" because all prakrits do not in these
> circumstances undergo gemination of the complex cluster unlike Pali. The
> Ashokan epigraphic language does not do it

Geminates are never written in the early inscriptions. So this is a mere orthographic phenomenon.



> The -ebhiḥ ending (for -aiḥ in standard sanskrit) was exceptional, it was not the norm in Old-Indo-Aryan.

Still in the Ṛgveda the two endings -ebhiḥ (543 times of 211 stems ) and -aiḥ (666 times of 221 stems) are almost equally frequent, but already in the Atharveda the ending -ebhiḥ decreases significantly.

There is plenty that could be said about all the rest of what has been claimed here, but I simply do not have the time. It is not necessary to reinvent the wheel, just study the relevant literature.


Best,
Roland Steiner


Ramakrishnan

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May 13, 2020, 11:46:08 AM5/13/20
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Dear Dr. Steiner,


>>Geminates are never written in the early inscriptions. So this is a mere orthographic phenomenon.<<

Yes, but not just that, there are plenty of other such orthographic phenomena that litter the Ashokan inscriptions and other early written texts. The fact that OIA words ending in consonants routinely shed their final consonants when represented in writing in early epigraphy (and in 'written' Pali manuscripts) but preserve them within compounds, are another indication of similar orthographic phenomena in operation.

Regarding -ebhiḥ being almost as frequent as -aiḥ in the Ṛgveda saṃhitā dialects - this is true but holds nothing of relevance to the Pali canon whose underlying spoken language was not coeval to the language of the Ṛgveda saṃhitās nor even was derived directly from any such archaic dialect. The distribution of -ebhi and -ehi in Pāli broadly matches the frequency of -ebhiḥ and -aiḥ respectively in late-OIA (the immediately preceding or coeval OIA dialect, to the underlying spoken dialect of Canonical Pali) - so the need to seek recourse to the archaic dialects to explain the ostensible *-ebhiḥ > -ehi sound shift does not arise.

>>There is plenty that could be said about all the rest of what has been claimed here, but I simply do not have the time. It is not necessary to reinvent the wheel, just study the relevant literature.<<
Despite all that has been said (none of which has conclusively settled the question), are you saying people like Louis Renou (and plenty of other modern scholars) were not studying the relevant literature enough when he called the absence of OIA in the early epigraphic records (and its ubiquity from the start of the CE onwards) the "great linguistic paradox of India"?

Ramakrishnan




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विश्वासो वासुकेयः

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May 16, 2020, 5:57:57 AM5/16/20
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On Saturday, May 9, 2020 at 6:15:22 PM UTC+5:30, Nagaraj Paturi wrote:
is it considered an aberration and therefore incorrect?

It is not correct to consider that an aberration or incorrect. 

On Sat, May 9, 2020 at 12:02 PM G S S Murthy <murt...@gmail.com> wrote:
Apropos Prof.Warrier's note, "Pronunciation of visarga in Dravidian family languages is also like that in modern Indo Aryan.   Visarga ending "a" is pronounced like "aha", ending "iḥ" is pronounced "ihi", ending "u" is pronounced "uhu" and so on.", is it considered an aberration and therefore incorrect?

To the extant that it is pronounced these days (especially in some regions) - "raamahaa aagatahaa" it is definitely an aberration (even comedy to some). That said, visarga does naturally involve some muted/ deemphasized  sounding of the previous vowel as a consequence of visarjana/ cutting off of the breath.

I append some points laid out be shrI rAkesh dAs some years ago:
## प्रातिशाख्येषु संज्ञा 
- (स्रोतांसि - राकेशवचनानि)
- तैत्तिरीयप्रातिशाख्यस्य वैदिकाभरणभाष्ये उच्यते यत् "वायोर्विसर्जनेन जन्यत्वाद् अयं विसर्जनीयो भवति"(तै०प्रा०वै०भा० १। १८)
- ऋक्प्रातिशाख्ये तथा तैत्तिरीयप्रातिशाख्ये यद्यपि विसर्जनीयसंज्ञा न विहिता किन्तु विसर्जनीयशब्दस्य बहुधा प्रयोग उपलभ्यते।
- वाजसनेयिप्रातिशाख्ये तथा ऋक्तन्त्रे विसर्जनीयसंज्ञा विहिता। (अः इति विसर्जनीयः। वा०प्रा० ८। २२, ऋ०तं० १। २) अथर्वप्रातिशाख्ये विसर्जनीयसंज्ञा न विधीयते। किन्तु विसर्जनीयशब्दस्य प्रयोगः बहुधा समुपलभ्यते। किन्तु, विसर्जनीयस्य कृते अभिनिष्ठानशब्दस्य प्रयोगोऽपि अत्र विहितः। तथाहिविसर्जनीयोऽभिनिष्ठानः। (च०अ० १। ४२)

## स्थानम्
- (स्रोतांसि - राकेशवचनानि)
- ऋक्प्रातिशाख्ये तैत्तिरीयप्रातिशाख्ये (कण्ठस्थानौ हकारविसर्जनीयौ॥२.४६॥) वाजसनेयिप्रातिशाख्ये च विसर्जनीयः कण्ठ्य इत्युक्तः। किन्तु ऋक्प्रातिशाख्ये कथ्यते यत्, केचिदाचार्या इमम् उरस्यं मन्वते इति - केचिदेता उरस्यौ। (ऋ०प्रा० १। ४०)
- तत्रैव तैत्तिरीयप्रातिशाख्यानुसारं विसर्जनीयस्य स्थानान्तरम् अप्युक्तम् - यस्मात् स्वरात् परं विसर्जनीयस्तिष्ठति तस्येव उच्चारणस्थानं भवति विसर्जनीयस्य (पूर्वान्तसस्थानो विसर्जनीयः॥२.४८॥)
- किन्तु ऋक्प्रातिशाख्ये निरस्त इति कश्चिद्दोष उक्तः। पूर्ववर्तिदीर्घवर्णस्य स्थानाद् विसर्जनीयस्य उच्चारणे अयं दोष उक्तः। तथाहिस्वरात्परं पूर्वसस्थानमाहुर्दीर्घान्निरस्तं तु विसर्जनीयम्। (ऋ०प्रा० १४। ३०)
- अनयोर्मतयोः समन्वयः कथमिति उवटेन सम्यक् प्रदर्शितम्। उवटः अस्य सूत्रस्य व्याख्याने पक्षद्वयं कल्पयति। तथाहि
- . दीर्घात्परस्य विसर्जनीयस्यैव पूर्वसस्थानत्वं भवति।
- . अन्यस्थाने दीर्घात् स्वरात्परो विसर्जनीयो देवैरपि उच्चारयितुं न शक्यते इत्यतः। दीर्घात्स्वरात् परं पूर्वसस्थानत्वम् आचार्या आहुः।
- तत उवटः कथयति यद्, अनयोः उभावपि पक्षौ युक्तौ। शास्त्रान्तरे विसर्जनीयस्य कण्ठस्थानं, पूर्वसस्थानत्वं च विहितम्। अत्र तु दोषसमुच्चयप्रकरणे वचनाद् अयं दोष इत्येव निर्णेयम्। शास्त्रान्तरदृशा अस्य दोषत्वं नेति। (तत्रैव उ०भा०)



My current opinion thereon:

"
- विसर्गो नाम प्राक्तन-स्वरस्योच्चारणे यो वायुस् तस्यान्तिमभागस्य विसर्जनम्, तेन प्राक्तनस्वरस्य कर्तनम् इव। एवं विसृष्टो वायुभागः प्राक्तनस्वरस्य छायामिवेषदिवानुवहति।
- तेनासौ शब्दः शुद्धहकाराद् भिन्नो भवति। नाम "हरिः", "हरः" इत्यत्र वाऽन्तिमः शब्दः "हरिह्" इति वा "हरह्" इति वोच्चारिते श्रूयमाणात् प्राक्तनस्वरच्छायारहित-शुद्धहकाराद् भिन्नो भवति।
- यः स्वरसहित-हकारसदृशः शब्दश् श्रूयेत क्वचित्, स पूर्ण-स्वर-युक्त-हकाराद् भिन्नो भवति - तस्याव्यक्ततरत्वात् निम्नध्वनित्वाद् अल्पतरमात्रात्वाच्च। नाम "हरिहि" इत्युच्चारिते यो ऽन्यवर्णसदृशं व्यक्तः हिकारश् श्रूयते ऽन्ते, तदपेक्षया "हरिः" इत्युक्तय् इकाराद् उत्तरो ऽन्तिमवर्णो ऽबुद्धुपूर्वको ऽव्यक्ततरो निम्नध्वनिश्च भवति। यावानत्रोच्चारणे व्यक्तता ऽन्तिमवर्णस्य, तावान् ह्यत्र दोषः।
- किञ्चाऽन्तिमशब्दस्य +अव्यक्ततायाम् अभावे वा प्रयत्नातिशये कृतेऽपि दोषः।
"



 
Thanks and regards,
Murthy

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Subrahmanyam Korada

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May 16, 2020, 7:49:02 AM5/16/20
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नमो विद्वद्भ्यः

अभिनिष्ठान इति अपशब्दः ---

’ अभिनिसः स्तनः शब्दसंज्ञायाम् ’ (पा 8-3-86 ) इति षत्वम् -- अभिनिष्टानो वर्णः (विसर्जनीयः) - विसर्गस्य पूर्वाचार्यसंज्ञा ।

अभिनिस् + स्तन + घञ् -- अभिनिष्टानः --- ष्टन शब्दे (भ्वादिः , न तु स्तन देवशब्दे- चुरादिः ) - घञ् ’ अकर्तरि च कारके संज्ञायाम् ’ , प्रादिसमासः ’ कुगतिप्रादयः ’ । अन्यत्र अभिनिस्तनति मृदङ्गः ।

आपस्तम्बः --

द्व्यक्षरं चतुरक्षरं वा नामपूर्वम् आख्यातोत्तरं दीर्घाभिनिष्टान्तं घोषवदाद्यन्तरन्तस्थम् ।

धन्यो’स्मि


Dr.Korada Subrahmanyam
Professor of Sanskri,
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Ph:09866110741(M),91-40-23010741(R)
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Venkatakrishna Sastry

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May 16, 2020, 9:49:02 AM5/16/20
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Namaste

 

Request more help to understand the ' poorvacharya samjnaa' part.  

 

What might have been the necessity of poorvacharyas to formulate a complex technical term (Samjnaa) for Visarjaneeya using two upasargas and addition of a pratyaya  and then define a 'svara' modification in only one form?  

 

Why  two other forms  from the same base represent ' varna' ? Why four special forms from the same base ?  

 

Why postulate a common base of  'two upasarga compound' -    to explain ' Varna and Visarjaneeya'   in the same breath  after 'sapaada saptaadhyaayi' ??

 

If the samjnaa for Visarjaneeya was already  there, why Panini needs special specific mention of visarjaneeya in the following sutras : खरवसानयोर्विसर्जनीयः (8-3-15) ; विसर्जनीयस्य सः (8-3-34)

शर्परे विसर्जनीयः (8-3-35) ;  नुम्विसर्जनीयशर्व्यवायेऽपि (8-3-58)  before   the sutra  अभिनिसः स्तनः शब्दसंज्ञायाम्   ( 8-3-86) ?

 

Reason for seeking explanation:

 

a) < अभिनिस >.  is the common  base for  all the four formations  as < अभिनिष्ष्टानो वर्णः, अभिनिस्तानो वर्णः। अभिनिष्ष्टानो विसर्जनीयः, अभिनिस्तानो विसर्जनीयः  >    

 

b) Nyasa explains < अभिनिस >  as < अभिनिसिति योऽयमुपसर्गसमवायस्तस्मादित्यर्थः  >. ::  That is ' अभिनिस' is a upasarga samasa- a compound of two upasargas.

    Is there a necessity to explain a 'Samjnaa' as a 'samaasa' ?

 

 

 

I place below the full text of  explanation of sutra 8-3-86 in Kashikaa and Nyaasa for ease of reference.  

 ( Source:   http://sanskritdocuments.org/learning_tools/ashtadhyayi/vyakhya/8/8.3.86.htm  )


 

सूत्रम्       अभिनिसः स्तनः शब्दसंज्ञायाम्॥ ८।३।८६

 

काशिका-वृत्तिः

अभिनिसः स्तनः शब्दसंज्ञायाम् ८।३।८६

अभिनिसित्येतस्मातुत्तरस्य स्तनतिसकारस्य मूर्धन्यादेशो भवति अन्यतरस्यां शब्दसंज्ञायां गम्यमानायाम् अभिनिष्ष्टानो वर्णः, अभिनिस्तानो वर्णः। अभिनिष्ष्टानो विसर्जनीयः, अभिनिस्तानो विसर्जनीयः शब्दसंज्ञायाम् इति किम्अभिनिस्तनति मृदङ्गः। समासे इति अतःप्रभृति निवृत्तम्।

 

न्यासः

अभिनिसः स्तनः शबदसंज्ञायाम्? , ८।३।८६

अनादेशसकारत्वादप्राप्त एव षत्वे वचनम्() "ष्टन शब्दे" (धा।पा।४६१) इति भौवादिकस्य ग्रहणम्() "स्तन गदी देवशब्दे" ["गदी परिवेदने" (धा।पा।१८६०)] (धा।पा।१८५९) इत्यतस्य चौरादिकस्य तु न। तस्य ग्रहणे सत्यदन्तत्वात्"अत उपधायाः७।२।११६ इति वृद्धिर्लभ्यते। अभि, निस्()--इत्येताभ्यामेवेदं षत्वं विधीयते हि व्यस्तभ्यामुत्तरस्य तस्य स्तुनतेर्मूर्धन्षे कृते शब्दसंज्ञा गम्यते। "अभिनिस इत्येतस्मात्()" इत्यादि। अभिनिसिति योऽयमुपसर्गसमवायस्तस्मादित्यर्थः "अभिनिष्टानः" इति। अभिनिस्तव्यतेऽनेन, "अकर्तरि कारके संज्ञायाम्()" ३।३।१९ इति घञ्() प्रादिसमासः। ननु समानाधिकारादेवाभिनिःस्तनतीत्यत्र भविष्यति। किमेतन्निवृत्त्यर्थेन शब्दसंज्ञाग्रहणेनइत्यत आह--"समास इत्यतः प्रभुति निवृत्तम्()" इति॥

 

Regards

BVK Sastry

Subrahmanyam Korada

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May 17, 2020, 8:05:04 AM5/17/20
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नमस्ते आचार्य

1.What might have been the necessity of poorvacharyas to formulate a complex technical term (Samjnaa) for Visarjaneeya using two upasargas and addition of a pratyaya  and then define a 'svara' modification in only one form?  

It is difficult to justify - we do not exactly know as to who first coined the term or it was borrowed from Veda ( that is not available today) .
One more point -- ’अभिनिष्टानः ’ - is seen in the sense of विसर्ग  only , not in the sense of वर्ण ।
It is stated in काशिका that the विधि is अन्यतरस्याम् ( अनुवृत्ति from earlier सूत्रम्) - but we do not find the term without मूर्धन्य (ष) in the usages - so not supported in न्यास / पदमञ्जरी / माधवीयधातुवृत्ति / कौमुदी । 
पतञ्जलि did not attempt this सूत्रम् ।

2.If the samjnaa for Visarjaneeya was already  there, why Panini needs special specific mention of visarjaneeya in the following sutras : खरवसानयोर्विसर्जनीयः  (8-3-15) .......  

लघ्वर्थं संज्ञाकरणम् - says  Patanjali | 
Panini , unless it is required ( सर्वनाम ) , does not go for a lengthy संज्ञा ( save अन्यतरस्याम्  for वा / विभाषा - Patanjali defends - सर्ववेदपारिषदं हीदं शास्त्रम् ....) ।
So he preferred - ' विसर्जनीयः ’ - later grammarians preferred ' विसर्ग ’ ।
Panini used ' संहिता ’ , following प्रातिशाख्या (ऋक्..) - Katyayana used सन्धि ।

एकमात्रालाघवं पुत्रोत्सवं मन्यन्ते वैयाकरणाः -- परिभाषा।
पर्यायपदेषु लाघवगौरवचर्चा नास्ति -- वैयाकरणसमयः ।

विसर्जनीय and विसर्ग are अन्वर्थसंज्ञे - वायुः विसृज्यते अस्य उच्चारणे ।

3.अभिनिसिति योऽयमुपसर्गसमवायस्तस्मादित्यर्थः  >. ::  That is ' अभिनिस' is a upasarga samasa- a compound of two upasargas.

Please check - it is समवाय = समुदाय of two उपसर्ग-s ( समवायान् समवैति पा सू) । उपसर्ग-s cannot form a समास -- समर्थः पदविधिः पा सू ।

ष्टन / स्तन -- what we have before is a न्यास that is revised -- in the earlier version it was स्तन --
माधवीयधातुवृत्तिः : अत्र न्यासे सकारादिरयं पठितः । तदस्य षोपदेशपर्युदासवाक्ये उपादानान्निर्मूलम् । अत एव पुरुषकारे मूर्धन्यादिरेवायं दर्शितः ।

शुभं भूयात्

Irene Galstian

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May 17, 2020, 10:01:16 AM5/17/20
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I might have missed this mentioned earlier (if so, I apologise), but where does the earliest known mention of 'visarga' occur?

Thank you,
Irene

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Subrahmanyam Korada

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May 17, 2020, 1:23:17 PM5/17/20
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It is difficult to say as to when the term विसर्ग found its way into literature - but the order is --
before Panini -- अभिनिष्टानः
Panini -- विसर्जनीयः
after Panini -- विसर्गः
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Irene Galstian

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May 17, 2020, 1:34:21 PM5/17/20
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Thank you, this is very helpful. 

Irene

On 17 May 2020, at 18:23, Subrahmanyam Korada <kora...@gmail.com> wrote:


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