On 31/07/2016 8:11 AM, Ross wrote:
> On Sunday, July 31, 2016 at 11:55:11 AM UTC+12, Robert Bannister wrote:
>> On 30/07/2016 9:36 AM, Will Parsons wrote:
>>> On Friday, 29 Jul 2016 8:15 PM -0400, David Kleinecke wrote:
>>>> On Friday, July 29, 2016 at 1:20:05 PM UTC-7, Will Parsons wrote:
>>>>> On Friday, 29 Jul 2016 8:12 AM -0400, Ross wrote:
>>>>>> On Friday, July 29, 2016 at 11:57:33 PM UTC+12, Peter Moylan wrote:
>>>>>>> On 2016-Jul-29 16:54, Ross wrote:
>>>>>>>> On Friday, July 29, 2016 at 5:16:51 PM UTC+12, Peter Moylan wrote:
>>>>>>>>> On 2016-Jul-29 10:24, Robert Bannister wrote:
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>>> Where is here? Does any form of English have the word "dipthong"? I
>>>>>>>>>> don't know of one. An article of underwear you dip in chocolate perhaps?
>>>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>>> It's true, though, that many of us /pronounce/ it as if it had been
>>>>>>>>> written "dipthong". The first h is an aspiration; whether that makes the
>>>>>>>>> "ph" sound like an "f" or a "p" seems to be a matter of personal taste.
>>>>>>>>
>>>>>>>> I don't follow your explanation here. What do you mean by saying
>>>>>>>> the first h is an aspiration? Written <ph> is *always* pronounced
>>>>>>>> as /f/, unless it's between morphemes as in "uphill". Isn't it?
>>>>>>>
>>>>>>> The dictionaries I've consulted all give two pronunciations, one with
>>>>>>> /f/ and one with /p/.
>>>>>>
>>>>>> Right, that's what we're trying to account for. Perhaps all you're
>>>>>> saying is that some people choose to ignore the first h when they
>>>>>> pronounce the word? OK, but as I went on to point out, this seems to
>>>>>> happen just in this little group of words where there's written
>>>>>> "phth" and spoken /fT/. I don't think there's any _general_ tendency
>>>>>> to pronounce "ph" as /p/.
>>>>>
>>>>> I think that the reason is not so much that the first H ignored as
>>>>> that people in general find the sequence [pθ] easier to pronounce than
>>>>> [fθ], and that of course leads to the spelling with <pth>. It's
>>>>> probably similar to why it takes conscious effort to pronounce
>>>>> "isthmus" [ˈɪsθməs] rather than [ˈɪsməs].
>>>>
>>>> In the original Greek it seems that "φθ" was the way to write an
>>>> aspirated "pt" where "pt" are co-articulated. Given an origin like
>>>> that I think most anything is permissable in English.
>>>
>>> Your statement about the pronunciation of "φθ" in Ancient Greek is
>>> likely correct, but I think it does not follow that "anything is
>>> permissable" in English. The theoretically "correct" pronunciation in
>>> English is indeed [fθ], but this seems to be a somewhat difficult
>>> combination to articulate, hence its replacement by [pθ]. It seems
>>> that the transition also was problematic for the Greeks themselves,
>>> resulting in the replacement of [φθ] by [ft] in Modern Greek.
>>>
>> My feeling is that fth is easy enough to say, but hard for a listener to
>> distinguish from a plain th.
>
> Why would that be a problem? I don't think any of the -phth-
> words have near-homophones with just -th-, so one wouldn't
> expect compensatory modification of /f/ to /p/ to avert
> misunderstanding. (I'm assuming you meant this as an explanation
> for the "pth" pronunciation.)
>
You're probably right, but I find it hard to believe that "fth" is
difficult to say. Still, enough tennis commentators seem to find
"Kvitova" impossible without inserting a syllable, so maybe my ideas
about what's easy to pronounce and what's not do not run with the
mainstream.
--
Robert B. born England a long time ago;
Western Australia since 1972