I'm a little confused about question 1. The question implies that we
should be able to prove that the lamport timestamp on event e is smaller
than the lamport timestamp on event e' even if zero messages occur. How
is this possible? Say event e occurs on computer X, and event e' occurs
on computer Y. Furthermore, say absolutely no messages have passed
between X and Y. Say 10 events took place before event e happened on X
(there L(e) = 11) and say 5 events took place before event e' happened on
Y (so L(e') = 6). Since no messages pass between the two computers, isn't
such a case possible? Thanks in advance for your help,
Ravi
Khuzaima
Khuzaima
Kang Chu wrote:
> So what does the question mean? Are the events from the same process
> or different process?
>
> kang
Shouldn't Question 1 say:
e --> e' => C(e) < C(e')
instead of:
e --> e' => C(e) --> C(e').
In other words, use the less-than sign <, instead of an arrow -->,
following the convention used in the textbook p. 254 for Lamport's logical
clocks.
Thanks,
Asem
cheers,
Jin
Thanks,
Filip
You may use either notation, they are both acceptable for this assignment.
In final exam, both notations are acceptable too.
Cheers,
Jin
Thanks,
Ravi
You do not need to assume e and e' as the send and receive event to make a
valid induction. They could be any events.
cheers,
Jin