8<---
A new long chapter could be opened on whether the Talmud had normative
value in Jesus’ time. It had not, and it’s not even cited by M.
[..]
L. finds inconceivable the presence of *textual* (emphasis mine)
material from the time of within the Talmud.
[..]
The high academic level is something British Judaism is rightly proud
of. Other than some marginal fundamentalists of Hungarian origin, even
orthodox scholars generally accept textual criticism. Nobody is outraged
discovering textual material from Jesus time in the *baraitot* (again
emphasis mine). Obviously, without normative value.
8<---
The Jewish traditional view, BTW, is that the oral law along with the
written law was given to Moses on Sinai. Parts of the oral law are
contained in the Talmud. Not all of the oral law is contained in the
Talmud, and not all parts of the Talmud are legalistic.
Best regards,
---Cindy S.
I don't understand what you mean when you say that the talmud lacked
"normative value" in Jesus' time. And who is M?
> [..]
> L. finds inconceivable the presence of *textual* (emphasis mine)
> material from the time of within the Talmud.
Who is "L"?
> [..]
> The high academic level is something British Judaism is rightly proud
> of. Other than some marginal fundamentalists of Hungarian origin, even
> orthodox scholars generally accept textual criticism. Nobody is outraged
> discovering textual material from Jesus time in the *baraitot* (again
> emphasis mine). Obviously, without normative value.
Why are the baraitot without normative value? And why the use of
quotation marks?
As far as traditional Jews are concerned, the oral material that later
came to be part of the redacted talmud had normative value from the
time it was received by Moses on Sinai, and it continues to have
normative value on this very day where it constitutes the basis for
much of our current Jewish law.
Best regards,
---Cindy S.
> I don't understand what you mean when you say that the talmud lacked
> "normative value" in Jesus' time. And who is M?
>
>> [..]
>> L. finds inconceivable the presence of *textual* (emphasis mine)
>> material from the time of within the Talmud.
>
> Who is "L"?
I am reporting the content of a conversation I had with about a guy X
about a book written by Y..., but I don't want to name names for privacy
reasons, just find the facts from informed people. BTW, I should I have
written..
>> L. finds the presence of *textual* (emphasis mine)
>> material from the time of Jesus, within the Talmud, inconceivable.
>
>> [..]
>> The high academic level is something British Judaism is rightly proud
>> of. Other than some marginal fundamentalists of Hungarian origin, even
>> orthodox scholars generally accept textual criticism. Nobody is outraged
>> discovering textual material from Jesus time in the *baraitot* (again
>> emphasis mine). Obviously, without normative value.
>
> Why are the baraitot without normative value?
I should ask the funny guy from London, probably he meant that was
written in the baraitot was mandatory for observant Jews.
> And why the use of
> quotation marks?
Because I am 'quoting' somebody else :-)
>
> As far as traditional Jews are concerned, the oral material that later
> came to be part of the redacted talmud had normative value from the
> time it was received by Moses on Sinai, and it continues to have
> normative value on this very day where it constitutes the basis for
> much of our current Jewish law.
> Best regards,
> ---Cindy S.
>
So it is safe to say that in the first century (i.e. in Jesus time, it
was a discussion about the Jewish environment where Jesus and Mary of
Nazareth lived) 1) the Talmud did not exist 2) there was no *written*,
*textual* material which, even centuries later, was (directly) included
in the Talmud ? I am a layman with a moderate interest in the subject,
mind you.
That is not true at all. Read the Iggereth Sherira Gaon, Maimonides,
Shemuel Ibn Nagrela, etc. etc.
The Mishna was written in a proto form from the early second temple,
and was already organized into 60 tractates by the time of Shammai and
Hillel.
> So, yes, it would be accurate
> to say that much of the material in the work we call "The Talmud" was
> in oral use in what would be considered Jesus' time, even though it
> was not redacted until several centuries later.
Not exactly. Jesus lived in Tannaitic times. The "sehma'ta" with
which the Mishna was studied may provide the conceptaul background
for, but is not the official statements of the Emora'im that were
accepted in Babylonian Academies and ultimately included in the
Talmud.
> The Jewish traditional view, BTW, is that the oral law along with the
> written law was given to Moses on Sinai.
Yes, but not the whole corpus found in the Talmud. Only a small
fraction, actually.
*That* is the actual traditional view.
> Parts of the oral law are
> contained in the Talmud. Not all of the oral law is contained in the
> Talmud,
Besides Tannaitic literature, oh yes it is.
Jacko
Sorry, you get no traction unless
a) you name the book and its author so we can see what was really
written.
b) get your funny guy to come on line and say what he said.
Third hand sources are never accurate, I know this from real-world
experience not just in written material but also in my job.
I've said this to other people on this group so don't think I'm
singling you out.
I think that when Cindy says redacted, -- and I know she will correct
me if I'm wrong about this -- she means written down. That doesn't
mean that Pentateuch was the only thing that existed up to that
point. That means that historically Jews resisted writing anything
down including the Pentateuch was put into writing. Talmud was not
written down until what, Cindy, about 7 centuries after Pentateuch was
written down?
Proof that extra-Pentateuchal material existed long before the Mishnah
were collected by R. Akiva (he died in 132 CE) let alone before Gemara
was written down include the following:
A Mishnah from Tractate Kelim (1:1) is cited in Haggai 2:13 recording
a discussion in 520 BCE; a Mishnah from Yadaim (4:7) is cited in a
letter written by the founders of Qumran as part of the reason for
seceding from the society the Hasmoneans were building, and the
secession happened about the time the Hasmoneans refused to return the
priesthood to the descendants of Tsadok High Priest. (Schiffman,
Lawrence, “Origin and Early History of the Qumran Sect” Biblical
Archaeology. Volume 58 Number 1, March 1995.) Neither of these is
cited in Talmud; neither Talmud has gemara to these Mishnah.
Gemara references rulings from around 80 BCE, during the reign of the
Hasmonean King Yannai, by his brother-in-law R. Shimon ben Shetach,
and R. Shimon's colleagues including R. Yehudah b. Perachiah,
including the jailing of a student of R. Yehudah who led Jews into
idol worship and was executed for that.
Gemara also includes rulings and other discussions by R. Hillel and R.
Shammai who died by about 10 CE.
These are all Talmud and they are just a few of the attributed rulings
in the 2,711 pages of Babylonian Talmud and the something like 1,700
numbered pages of the Jerusalem Talmud -- and the two are more than
just copies of each other -- vastly more.
If you are so interested in this and you have a free public library,
start using it.
Cheers