On Fri, 18 May 2012 02:57:01 -0700 (PDT), Gary <
lanc...@gmail.com>
wrote:
>I am trying to understand how to calculate effect sizes (standardized
>effect sizes?) for more complicated designs. My impression from
>textbooks is that these calculations have to be adjusted when the
>design changes. So I have been trying various examples taken from
>texts that I have found.
I don't have a citation for you, but I can tell you where your
problem arises. Also, the way to deal with it is to be very clear
in your exposition when you write up what you have done.
Reviewers rightfully complain when you mis-describe whatever
you are doing. And you want to be clear when you are doing
something unusual, which this probalby is.
An "effect size" is a difference divided by some appropriate
standard deviation. The problem exists -- and is impossible
to dismiss -- because, when you have a change across time,
there are two estimates of the SD which are both relevant.
Or even more than two.
The effect size that you should use in a power analysis is
the change (or regressed change) divided by its error, if you
are just looking at change. It is the error of the differences
in change scores, if you are comparing change scores. That
is what describes the necessary N, and the inter-relations of
any power analysis. For an ANCOVA, that is from the error
term of the ANCOVA. That is the magnitude of your effect,
given that you have a within-subject design for effects.
On the other hand, the formula from Hedge that I see in Wikip
is the formula for a difference between uncorrelated samples.
And if you are reporting various tests, including the differences
that exist at baseline, it is entirely appropriate to report the
differences in terms of (say) the baseline SD, either from a
control group or pooled across experimental samples.
So - an X point difference on a particular scale (even if it
is well-behaved and the SD never varies with the mean)
is a different "effect size" depending on the comparison --
(1) Baseline differences; (2) change in one group; (3) difference
in changes between two groups. If I was ever looking at
(3), I would try to skip the version in (2), just to keep things
simpler.
>Brian Everitt reported data on a study of three treatments for
>anorexia in young girls. One treatment was cognitive behaviour
>therapy, a second was a control condition with no therapy, and a third
>was a family therapy condition. There was pre-treatment and post-
>treatment scores (body weights, I think) for all three conditions.
>Suppose one wanted to calculate Hedges g to report the effect size of
>the difference between the family therapy treatment and the control
>condition after one had run an ANCOVA in which the dv = posttest
>scores and the covariate was pretest scores. My question is: How
>should the Hedges g value be calculated?
>Looking at the formula given in Huitema (2011) �The analysis of
>covariance and alternatives� (2nd edition), John Wiley and Sons, the
>formula is often written with the difference between the two means
>divided by the root of the error term in the ANCOVA, and sometimes as
Using the error term from the ANCOVA is looking at the
difference between the regressed-change scores.
You might check Huitema again and see if he ever mentions
the difference in circumstances. It looks like he should.
>the difference between the two means divided by the root of the sum of
>the sum of squares of the dv (�y� in the formula) scores for each of
>the two groups where this sum is divided by the sum of the n of the
>two groups minus 2.
>But I get quite different answers depending on which interpretation of
>the formula I use. If I use the error term from the ANCOVA I get
>0.116. If I use the residuals rather than the y scores (on the grounds
>that the ANCOVA has adjusted the y scores for the effect of the
>covariate) I get a very different answer, 0.874. Anyway I�m obviously
>confused. Can anyone tell me how Hedges g should be calculated when
>running an ANCOVA?
[snip, example]
--
Rich Ulrich