Consider how antegrade ejaculation works:
It's a two stage process: the emission and the ejaculation phase.
In the emission phase, sperm is forced by peristalsis along the vas
deferens to the ampulla where it joins with the seminal vesicle fluid
forced out from the seminal vesicles, and then this, again by
peristalsis, is forced along the ejaculatory ducts into the prostatic
urethra. The speed of the process was likened by one writer to a human
running a one-minute mile (i.e. it's blazingly fast). At the same time
the prostatic ducts (in number 10 to 25, depending on the urology
text) lining the prostatic urethra secrete their contribution. This
movement of fluid is what provides the "first stage" pleasurable part
of orgasm and both antegrade and retrograde ejaculators will feel the
same sensations.
Now we get to a contentious issue which is not agreed to by the
various urology textbooks. Some say that the bladder neck is not
closed at the point of emission (they say it closes on ejaculation
(the second stage)) but others contend that it is. I agree with the
latter. If it were open at the point of emission all of us would have
retrograde ejaculation; the ejaculate would just pour backwards into
the bladder. I contend that in normal circumstances both the bladder
neck and the external sphincter are closed at this point.
The second stage, the ejaculation phase, is where, in antegrade
ejaculation, the external sphincter relaxes and the perineal and
bulbourethral muscles contract to force the ejaculate out of the
prostatic urethra and through the penile urethra and out of the body.
This contraction and passage of fluid provides the second part of the
orgasm.
What causes the ejaculation? The urology texts are tantalizingly
vague. For example, Gillenwater's Adult and Pediatric Urology says
"[it] is thought to be triggered by the presence of seminal fluid in
the posterior [prostatic] urethra." I suppose one could say
sarcastically that the prostate does a quick analysis of the fluid to
differentiate it from urine and general prostatic secretions and
depending on the results it unleashes the ejaculation. I don't think
so.
A much more helpful and logical IMO explanation is that as the
ejaculate is forced into the prostatic urethra it builds up pressure
and when that pressure reaches a certain tipping point the necessary
signals are passed back to the CNS to cause it to issue the
instructions to the appropriate muscle groups. If the bladder neck is
damaged or for another reason not tightly closed this tipping point
will never be reached and ejaculation (of any kind) will never occur.
That is, retrograde ejaculation is really a misnomer; there is no
ejaculation. Ejaculate will seep back into the bladder and/or be
flushed out with the next urination, though.
Note that this happens very quickly, almost as one continuous function
especially in the young. By the time one reaches old age the feelings
of emission and ejaculation are quite distinct. I wouldn't like to
lose the second.
The process could be likened to firing a rifle. The emission phase is
the loading of the shell into the chamber and the ejaculatory phase is
the actual firing of the weapon.
When reading urology texts, studies, reports, and of course
non-medical information it is very important to check if the writer is
using the term ejaculation in the general sense or in the more precise
sense of referring to the second phase. This may be the problem with
the question of the timing of the closure of the bladder neck. One day
they'll appoint an engineer to clean up the medical terminology (I
hope).
The above is my understanding BTW. If anyone feels that it's
inaccurate I'd be more than happy to discuss the possible error (here
of course).