Now assume a model of Set Theory for which CH is false, and thus there
are three or more infinite cardinalities for which subsets of R may
hold. Is it true that all such subsets of R of smaller cardinality
than c but be of measure 0? It seems obvious to me that any
measurable set of size less than c must be of measure 0. But can
there be non-measurable sets smaller than c?
> Now assume a model of Set Theory for which CH is false,
> and thus there are three or more infinite cardinalities
> for which subsets of R may hold. Is it true that all such
> subsets of R of smaller cardinality than c but be of measure 0?
No, this does not have to be true, but it can be, depending
on the model.
There is a cardinal number called non(L) that is defined
to be the minimum cardinality possible for a set of real
numbers that does not have Lebesgue measure zero. (We don't
have to say "infinimum", because every set of cardinal
numbers has a minimal element -- recall that sets of cardinal
numbers are well-ordered.) Thus, every set of reals with
cardinality less than non(L) has measure 0. There are very
few a prior restrictions on what values non(L) can have, besides
being greater than aleph_0 and not greater than 2^(aleph_0),
but its relationship to many other so-called "cardinal
invariants of the real line" has been studied extensively.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cicho%C5%84's_diagram
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Set_theory_of_the_real_line
Dave L. Renfro
One a priori restriction (assuming AC) is that non(L) has uncountable
cofinality. Is that all?
> One a priori restriction (assuming AC) is that non(L) has
> uncountable cofinality. Is that all?
I have no idea, and I wasn't sure I could easily find
out, so I purposely worded my reply in a way that I
hoped would be safe (i.e. basically correct, if not
all that informative).
Dave L. Renfro