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f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)=>f continuous??

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Rocco

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Nov 15, 2002, 5:33:22 PM11/15/02
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Hello everybody;

Here is a problem that i can't solve:

f : R->R (R are the reals) is a function such that f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) for all
(x,y) in R^2.
Is f necessarily continous? -in fact, can we easily find a counterexample ?-

thanks for your help!!

Arturo Magidin

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Nov 15, 2002, 7:39:24 PM11/15/02
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No, f is not necessarily continuous. No, we cannot find an easy
counterexample; in fact, it is not possible to write down one, if I'm
not mistaken.


The condition given implies that:

f(ax) = af(x)

for any rational number x.

Consider R as a vector space over Q. Then, using Zorn's Lemma, one can
find a basis for R as a vector space over Q (an infinite basis), say
(v_i), i in I.

Then every element of R may be written uniquely as

x = sum (a_i*v_i)

with a_i rational, and all but a finite number of them equal to zero.

Fix a specific element of the basis, say v_0. Let f be the "projection
onto the v_0-th coordinate". That is, let f(x) = a_0, where x = sum
(a_i*v_i).

Then f is a linear transformation, so in particular f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)
for all x and all y in R.

Yet it is not hard to verify that f is not continuous.

======================================================================
"It's not denial. I'm just very selective about
what I accept as reality."
--- Calvin ("Calvin and Hobbes")
======================================================================

Arturo Magidin
mag...@math.berkeley.edu

José Carlos Santos

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Nov 15, 2002, 7:40:44 PM11/15/02
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No, f is not necessarily continous. Consider R as a vector space over Q
(the rationals). Take a basis B of that space and consider a linear
function f such that f(v) = 1 for some element v of B and that takes the
value 0 at every other element of B. Then f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y). But
if f : R -> R has this property and is also continuous, then, for every
x in R, f(x) = f(1).x, and so the function mentioned above cannot be
continuous.

Best regards

Jose Carlos Santos

David Kastrup

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Nov 15, 2002, 7:37:21 PM11/15/02
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"Rocco" <h...@hotmail.com> writes:

Well, f(0) is trivial, so is f(nx)=n f(x) and from there f((p/q)x) =
(p/q)f(x).

So fixing one rational apart from 0 fixes them all. Now you just
need a good scheme to go goofy on the irrationals, or at least a
subset of them...

--
David Kastrup, Kriemhildstr. 15, 44793 Bochum

Karl Forsberg

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Nov 16, 2002, 6:55:08 AM11/16/02
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As others have posted - the answer is no. However if you assume that f
is measurable (a fairly weak assumption) then the answer is yes.

Robert Israel

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Nov 16, 2002, 9:45:17 PM11/16/02
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In article <MPG.1840508cd...@news1.telia.com>,
Karl Forsberg <MBPCLI...@spammotel.com> wrote:
>Rocco wrote:

>> f : R->R (R are the reals) is a function such that f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y) for all
>> (x,y) in R^2.
>> Is f necessarily continous? -in fact, can we easily find a counterexample ?-

>As others have posted - the answer is no. However if you assume that f

>is measurable (a fairly weak assumption) then the answer is yes.

In fact, it's a nice exercise to show that if f is measurable and
satisfies the equations f(2x) = 2 f(x) and f(3x) = 3 f(x), then f(x)/x
is constant for x > 0.

Robert Israel isr...@math.ubc.ca
Department of Mathematics http://www.math.ubc.ca/~israel
University of British Columbia
Vancouver, BC, Canada V6T 1Z2

Robert Israel

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Nov 17, 2002, 1:25:22 AM11/17/02
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In article <ar6vrt$8tm$1...@nntp.itservices.ubc.ca>,
Robert Israel <isr...@math.ubc.ca> wrote:

>In fact, it's a nice exercise to show that if f is measurable and
>satisfies the equations f(2x) = 2 f(x) and f(3x) = 3 f(x), then f(x)/x
>is constant for x > 0.

Oops: I meant then f(x)/x is constant almost everywhere for x > 0.

Marko

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Nov 17, 2002, 6:28:16 AM11/17/02
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"Rocco" <h...@hotmail.com> wrote in message news:<ar42op$mpq$1...@wanadoo.fr>...


A very good discussion of Cauchy's functional equation can be found in
C.H.Morgan's B.A. Thesis on functional equations.

Link: http://www.mth.msu.edu/~morgan/thesis.ps

j.e.mebius

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Nov 19, 2002, 9:33:21 AM11/19/02
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Dear Rocco,

In my student's years in the 1960s I asked the same question to my teacher prof.
dr F. van der Blij. He told me that to construct a discontinuous linear function
on the reals, one needs a so-called Hamel basis of the reals as a vector space
over the field Q of the rationals.

With the help of the Axiom of Choice one proves the existence of such a basis.
Hamel bases are necessarily uncountable. As far as I know, an explicit
construction is unknown, and the problem of contructing a Hamel basis is
undecidable.

BTW, discontinuous linear functions on Q(sqrt(2)), and indeed on any real
algebraic number field (always finite-dimensional as a linear space over Q and
always not complete as a metric space with the usual distance function), are
easily constructed.

Hope this helps you to some extent.

Best regards: Johan E. Mebius

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