> An article in Cosmo reported that the average man has sex with 12 women
> before death, the average woman has sex with 3 men before death. Is this
> statistically possible? My girlfriend claims it is so, but her examples
> fall apart with a bit of scrutiny. The average for both groups changes by
> the same factor every time two people have sex. She then says it is due to
> an uneven population, but I argue that the population would have to be a
> whole hell of a lot more disproportionate for a ratio like 4:1. I think it
> is more likely that both groups lied on the survey, women reported lower
> numbers and men reported higher numbers.
Fantasy Sex League?
If the male heterosexual population is four times smaller than the female one,
it is. I do not deem it is so, though.
A few hints:
i) men's arrogance and women's decence have twisted the figures :-)
ii) the article is talking about the median, not the average
[In that case, half of the woman have an average of more than
21 partners. B....! ;-)]
> My girlfriend claims it is so
Does she suggest you're slightly too much out?
--
Régis