On May 17, 9:21 am, CDB <
bellemar...@gmail.com> wrote:
> On 17/05/2013 8:02 AM, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
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> > Eric Walker <
em...@owlcroft.com> wrote:
> >> Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> >>> Here's a sentence from *Three Men in a Boat* (1888). Discuss.
> >>> [They are discussing what to do with their free week. After an extended
> >>> disquisition on seasickness:]
> >>> "So I set my face against the sea trip. Not, as I explained, upon my own
> >>> account.. I was never queer. But I was afraid for George. George says he
> >>> should be all right, and would rather like it, but he would advise
> >>> Harris and me not to think of it, as he felt sure we should both be
> >>> ill."
> >> Wilson Follett, in _Modern American Usage_, devotes an entire and
> >> somewhat lengthy chapter to Shall|Will. In his introductory remarks to
> >> the chapter, he notes:
> > a lot of nonsense.
> >> His discussion is eminently worth reading, for both knowledge and
> >> entertainment. It leads, in one part, to this table:
> > As I have mentioned every time you adduce Wilson Follett, he is an
> > ignorant idiot.
> >> Cordially,
> > Bullshit.
>
> My goodness, that's brisk.
I have been exposed to Mr. Walker's attitudes several times over
recent years, and he is anything but cordial.
> What I would be very grateful to see
> explained, if possible by someone who naturally distinguishes "shall"
> and "will" (I know there are some in AUE), is the "shall" in "George
> says he should be all right". As a North American, I would understand
> the "should" to imply expectation, but I was wondering if the phrase
> could be a sort of half--reported-speech version of "I shall be all
> right", with the first-person "shall" carried over into the indirect
> version. I'm pretty sure I've seen that before.
It was Dr Nick who claimed the usage to be explicable, but so far he
has not explicated it.
> I considered the possibility because of the unaccountable change of
> tenses from "George says" to "as he felt sure". I almost wonder if
> "says" was an error for "said", made ignorable by the
> temporally-ambiguous form of the intervening "would rather like it".
> Would it be an acceptable understanding of "George said he should be all
> right"? Should it be?
There is one gnawing problem: I'm using the "Barnes & Noble Library of
Essential Reading" edition, which is not a reprint of an old printing
(although it does include the original illustrations), but has been
reset (unfortunately using the same 21st-century typeface they use for
every book in this series, and most of them just don't "look right" in
their new dress), and it is not impossible that it has been silently
edited: I was delighted to find that their verse translation of the
Aeneid (in the "Classics" series) is by Christopher Pearse Cranch, a
minor American poet something by whom I had recently come across and
liked, but on reading the editor's introduction I learned that she has
"modernized" it here and there.
The works by Studs Terkel used often to be cited (before extensive
oral corpora became available) in studies of syntax and discourse
because they supposedly represented verbatim transcriptions of
conversation, but one morning I happened to hear an interview on his
radio program that I had just read in one of the books, and discovered
that he had "touched up" the interviewee's words. I ran into him at
some public assembly event in "Bughouse Square" (as the "speakers'
corner" park in Chicago by the Newberry Library used to be called) and
asked him about this -- first of all, he was tickled that linguists
were using his materials in their investigations, but also he
confirmed that he had to edit the transcriptions of his recordings in
order to make them more natural-sounding.
Thus I hope someone with an older copy of *Three Men in a Boat* can
confirm that the above is what Jerome actually wrote.