On Wednesday, 27 February 2013 17:23:03 UTC, gregs talkin wrote:
> On Feb 26, 7:01 pm,
websta...@hotmail.com wrote: > I'm not sure what you mean; royalty doesn't really have a nationality, and a monarch in particular, as a sovereign, is not a subject of any sovereign and thus does not have a nationality, part of the reason they don't use passports for example. Plus, legally; the members of the British royal family are simultaneously Canadian, Australian, New Zealander, Barbadian, Tuvalan, Jamaican, etc. etc. etc. The next Scottish King (if Scotland does indeed become independent) will, death notwithstanding, be the current Prince of Wales and Duke of Rothesay. If you mean 'will there be another King of Scotland born in Scotland-it's possible (but unlikely), but ethnicity is not really important as regards monarch (though arguably it should be) -being the legal successor in law to the Scots throne is. Bear in mind there were plenty of Kings of Scotland before 1603 that were not Scottish either, out of the Kings and Queens of England prior to the 1707 Act of Union, Sweyn and Canute were Danish, William I, Stephen and Henry II were French by birth and upbringing (and the Kings of England up until roughly 1400 spoke French as their first language), James I and Charles I were Scottish, and William III was Dutch. George I and George II out of the British Monarchs were German, and so on. Well, what I mean is; with an independent Scotland, wouldn't there also be an independent Scottish king ascended from a purely Scottish line? The point being: independent is idenpendece, is it not?
-First of all; define 'purely'. Even the Kings of Scotland prior to 1603 who were born and brought up in Scotland, due to the intermarriage between european royal houses, were hardly 'purely' Scottish. A great many had French, or English, or Danish mothers for one thing. What is not important is whether they had a 'pure' Scottish bloodline (which is a ridiculous concept at best-who the hell has a 'pure' bloodline anyway?!?), it was that they legitimately held the Scottish throne in law and that they themselves, in at least some numinous way; viewed themselves as Scottish-but let's not forget, Scotland as an independent state before 1707 was largely a feudal creature-and during the feudal period 'national' loyalties either did not exist or were at best a secondary concern-men did not think of themselves as 'Scottish' (or any other nationality for that matter) particularly, they saw themselves as vassals to the local lord, and any loyalty to the King (and by extension the nation) was through the extensive feudal ladder that was above them.
Furthermore; the fact that Scotland has a monarch who is, by birth; English, is of no constitutional importance either. Both England and Scotland will revert to the situation from 1603 to 1707; that is, they will both be completely independent countries; but the Queen of Scotland will be at the same time Queen of England.
This is precisely the same situation we have presently with, for example, Canada. Canada is a completely independent country, able to negotiate treaties with foreign powers, declare war, give away territory, etc. etc., all completely separately from the United Kingdom. It just happens that the Queen of Canada, the Head of State and sovereign of that country, happens to be simultaneously Queen of the UK. That has no bearing on Canada's independence and doesn't make it or any of the other 'commonwealth realms' any less independent that any other sovereign state (say; Sweden), it just happens that, in the eyes of the law, this is the case. But bear in mind that the 'Queen of the UK' and the 'Queen of Canada' are completely separate positions, legal persons, and offices from each other. It is no different from; say, if the populance of say (were it possible in either countries' consitutions), Barack Obama were elected President of France (except from the fact that he, unlike the Queen, is not a sovereign). France would not become any less independent, or become in any way part of the U.S.A., they would just happen to share the same person (separately) as their chief executive.
So would it be as regards Scotland: constitutionally, there would be no difference between Elizabeth II, Queen of England, and Elizabeth II, (any yes, it would be 'II') Queen of Scotland, as there is presently between Margarethe II, Queen of Denmark, and Beatrix, Queen of the Netherlands. They just happen to be two offices held by the same person separately. They could conclude treaties with each other, declare war on each other (as her father, George VI, simultaneously King of Pakistan and King of India, did during the Indo-Pakistan war of 1947.), and conclude peace with one another. The fact they are two offices held by the same person is wholly irrelevant in the eyes of constitutional theory and international law.