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Which strategy would be best?

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Reint

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Nov 26, 2011, 12:20:28 PM11/26/11
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In our latest team match I caused us to miss a (vulnerable) slam. The
hand I had was:

9
J7
KJT864
AJT4

opposite my partner's hand:

AKQ3
A964
A5
Q87

My partner was dealer and our auction was:

1C - 1D
2NT - 3NT

Obviously 3NT is a poor choice. I realized that a slam could be on and
another lively possibility is that 3NT even goes down where 5-minor or
6-minor would make. It might even have been a grand, opposite the
likes of Ax,AJx,Ax,KQxxx 7C has excellent chances.
I thought of bidding 4D but the problem was that I didn't know how the
auction should continue further, hence my 3NT hoping that it would be
made without missing a slam.
My two questions are:

- what would be your choice and how to investigate whether it should
be diamonds or clubs?

- should 4D be seen as a slam try, where cue bidding (4H,4S) would
show acceptance and 4NT a sign-off or
should 4D be stronger with cue bidding obligatory?

thanks,
Reint.

OldPalooka

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Nov 26, 2011, 3:33:55 PM11/26/11
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I would have tried 3C if natural or 3D if not. I would expect it to
continue 3S - 3NT - P. Opener has terrible shape with great controls,
and responder is a little short to do more with the 'wrong' singleton,
i.e. facing opener's concentration in a major. It is the two minor
suit tens facing the three aces that make this such a good slam. Yet,
I believe that neither player has the right hand to go beyond 3NT

Lorne

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Nov 26, 2011, 4:17:35 PM11/26/11
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"Reint" wrote in message
news:c2172eff-eaf4-432d...@b32g2000yqn.googlegroups.com...
..................................

What is wrong with 3C? Surely that is not NF after partner has shown 18+
and you did not pass 1C. (I would hope 3D is also forcing).

For me 4D sets trumps and demands cue bids, but that obvioulsy depends on
agreeing that 3D is forcing.

derek

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Nov 26, 2011, 6:47:10 PM11/26/11
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On Nov 26, 1:20 pm, Reint <ostend...@kvi.nl> wrote:
> In our latest team match I caused us to miss a (vulnerable) slam. The
> hand I had was:
>
> 9
> J7
> KJT864
> AJT4
>
> opposite my partner's hand:
>
> AKQ3
> A964
> A5
> Q87
>
> My partner was dealer and our auction was:
>
> 1C - 1D
> 2NT - 3NT
>
> Obviously 3NT is a poor choice.

Don't be so hard on yourself. On sheer points, 3N is the right place
to be. What makes your hand worth a slam try is a 6-card suit _and_
an outside entry.

> I realized that a slam could be on and
> another lively possibility is that 3NT even goes down where 5-minor or
> 6-minor would make.

No, that's not a lively possibility, or even a likely one. You have
29 HCP (at least) between you. The likelihood that your partner can't
stop both majors before they can defeat 3N is negligible, so you
shouldn't be looking for a minor suit game - but you should be trying
for a slam.

> It might even have been a grand, opposite the
> likes of Ax,AJx,Ax,KQxxx 7C has excellent chances.
> I thought of bidding 4D but the problem was that I didn't know how the
> auction should continue further, hence my 3NT hoping that it would be
> made without missing a slam.
> My two questions are:
>
> - what would be your choice and how to investigate whether it should
> be diamonds or clubs?
>
> - should 4D be seen as a slam try, where cue bidding (4H,4S) would
> show acceptance and 4NT a sign-off or
> should 4D be stronger with cue bidding obligatory?

I don't really understand that. How can you show a stronger than
"slam try" hand, short of actually bidding slam or 5NT? So 4D is a
slam-try because you didn't either bid game or invite to 3N. Unless
you have clear agreements about 4C, just bid 4D and aim for 6D.

boblipton

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Nov 27, 2011, 7:48:41 AM11/27/11
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Before commenting usefully on the auction. one must infer certain
things about your bidding; first, that your are not playing a strong
club system, and that 1D seems to deny a major. I don't like it at
all. You cannot treat diamonds with contempt (nothing useful to say,
partner!) and then expect to find the slam in the contemptible strain
when it suits you.

There is no need to have abstract understandings. Had opener taken the
old-fashioned approach, that 1D was an attempt to find the right
strain and rebid 1H, the results might have been better. Responder
might have rebid 3D or 3C (a tad pushy with all those quacks) and
opener might have had an ahah moment.

In the end, however, I find something a bit result-merchantish about
the results. Make opener's hand AQJ AKxx Ax Qxx, and 6D is not so
pretty.

Bob

Dave Flower

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Nov 27, 2011, 9:40:42 AM11/27/11
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I think that 6D is odds-on, but perhaps not by a lot.

On a heart lead, the percentage play may well be, HA, DA, DK, SAKQ
discarding a heart and a club. Run the CQ.

Any comments ?

Dave Flower

Co Wiersma

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Nov 27, 2011, 9:59:29 AM11/27/11
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Op 27-11-2011 13:48, boblipton schreef:
> and that 1D seems to deny a major

where you see that?

jogs

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Nov 27, 2011, 3:38:23 PM11/27/11
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Depends on the defending skills of opponents.
Let's say diamonds split 3-2. After DA, DK only
a small diamond remains. CQ holds. Small club
to ten. Loses to club king. Club back ruffed for
down one.
So what's the percentage of this line?

Dave Flower

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Nov 27, 2011, 4:10:44 PM11/27/11
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> So what's the percentage of this line?- Hide quoted text -
>
> - Show quoted text -

No, I assumed that the DQ remained out; obviously if it drops trumps
are drawn. Not if declarer erroneously plays DK, DA, then two rounds
of spades (heart discard), ruff a heart high, draw the last trump and
concede a club.

But DA first means that declarer still has a chance if the diamonds
are 5-0

Dave Flower

dak...@aol.com

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Nov 28, 2011, 8:32:11 AM11/28/11
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Allow minor slam tries at 4-level with 4NT quits.
At least get the suggestion into this auction.
Pay the price if 9 tricks but not 10.

Thomas Dehn

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Nov 28, 2011, 12:03:30 PM11/28/11
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Opener's 2NT rebid with 4-4 in the majors.


Thomas
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