On Friday, May 25, 2012 11:36:13 PM UTC-7, Henry Lockwood wrote:
> On May 25, 7:20 pm, Balrog
> wrote:
> > Matchpoints, Opponents Vul
> >
> > Tx
> > J9xx
> > Kx AKxx xx
> > KQxx Kxx xx
> > T9x QJxxx
> > Axxx AQJxxxx Qxxx
> > Axx
> > x
> > JT
> >
> > 1S - DBL - RDBL - P
> > 2S - P - 2NT - P
> > 3S - P - P - P
> >
> > Only one other pair failed to bid the game.
> >
> > What was the worst bid?
> >
> > How much the of blame goes to each player?
>
> Is there a reason South bid 2S? Why not pass 1SXX, which is game
> already and is almost impossible not to make if partner's got a
> yarborough?
Great argument, assuming the chance you would play it in 1Sxx was greater than 0.0000%. It isn't.
OK, maybe it is. I did once play against a pair that got mixed up with West thinking the pass of 1Sxx was for penalties, while East thought it was just passing the buck to partner with no preference. We got two overtricks. But that has to be a rare occurrence, although maybe in a club game it happens more often than that.
But unless you want to play for the chance that your opponents are idiots, the score at 1Sxx isn't a good reason to pass. The only legitimate reason to pass with this hand is to hope that partner has something like 1=4=4=4 with good cards in the other three suits and can penalize them. You'd probably still take him out of 2Dx, but maybe 2Hx or 2Cx would work out better for you than a possible spade game (if it makes), especially at these colors. But I'd bid anyway. If you think it's really unlikely that you're going to defend at the 2-level doubled, you should go ahead and bid right away and take a level away from the opponents--or, on this hand, more than a level (since I think it's worth just bidding game).
-- Adam