Close enough?
Phil
bids.
Hand A
107542
Q974
6
K65
Partner deals and opens 1D. Should I pass or bid (and if so, what?).
If I respond 1S (for example) and partner rebids 1NT, should I pass?
Hand B
J1084
A8
J763
865
Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
18-19 HCP)
Thanks.
Will in New Haven
> Matchpoints. In both hands it's vul vs vul. We play sound opening
> bids.
>
> Hand A
> 107542
> Q974
> 6
> K65
> Partner deals and opens 1D. Should I pass or bid (and if so, what?).
> If I respond 1S (for example) and partner rebids 1NT, should I pass?
You should bid 1S. When partner bids 1NT, you can bid a non-forcing 2H
or you can pass. I slightly prefer 2H.
>
> Hand B
> J1084
> A8
> J763
> 865
> Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
> 18-19 HCP)
> Thanks.
I would probably bid 3NT and be in the same spot as everyone else. I
don't think 3NT rates to be wonderful but it is too close to go
against the field. If I thought the field I was in was going to pass,
I would pass.
--
Will in New Haven
Nick France
Hand A is an easy 1S bid to me and just as easy 2H (non-forcing) bid
over 1NT.
Hand B is a pass. If you aren't going to pass this hand then you
shouldn't use 2NT as showing 18-19 points and should find a
conventional meaning to 2NT.
Nick France
Andrew
> Matchpoints. In both hands it's vul vs vul. We play sound opening
> bids.
>
> Hand A
> 107542
> Q974
> 6
> K65
> Partner deals and opens 1D. Should I pass or bid (and if so, what?).
1S is clear. Pass is a fine way to score -300 in 1D instead of +110 in
a major suit. When partner opens 1m and you are short in partner's
suit, strive to respond, even if it is light. This is far from the
worst hand on which you should respond.
> If I respond 1S (for example) and partner rebids 1NT, should I pass?
Rebid 2H. Your hand is likely to play better in a major suit.
> Hand B
> J1084
> A8
> J763
> 865
> Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
> 18-19 HCP)
At matchpoints pass. At IMPs, 3NT.
Andrew
Kieran Dyke
"Phil" <psug...@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:0e576558-29a9-4cd5...@a31g2000yqn.googlegroups.com...
> Matchpoints. In both hands it's vul vs vul. We play sound opening
> bids.
>
> Hand A
> 107542
> Q974
> 6
> K65
> Partner deals and opens 1D. Should I pass or bid (and if so, what?).
> If I respond 1S (for example) and partner rebids 1NT, should I pass?
2H. Automatic for me. If you have good methods and a competent partner you
need not fear hearing any bid from partner other than pass and 2S.
>
> Hand B
> J1084
> A8
> J763
> 865
> Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
> 18-19 HCP)
> Thanks.
3NT. Not interested in hanging close to game. The heart ace is probably
gold; the spade and diamond holdings might be worth a trick or a stopper.
Don't spend your life thinking of reasons to stay just short of game.
Tiggrr
Adam Beneschan
> bids.
>
> Hand A
> 107542
> Q974
> 6
> K65
> Partner deals and opens 1D. Should I pass or bid (and if so, what?).
> If I respond 1S (for example) and partner rebids 1NT, should I pass?
I'm with everyone else on this---bidding 1S and then 2H over 1NT is
fine, if you're on solid ground that 2H is nonforcing in this
auction. You won't be able to find a heart fit if partner rebids 2C
or 2D, but in those cases you can at least pass and know you're in a
playable spot, unless partner has picked this time to try a tricky 2C
rebid on a 3-card suit. If he has rebid 2C on the Bridge World Death
Hand, something like AQx x AKJxxx AJx, then try to talk him into
playing Responder's Reverse Flannery. :) :)
> Hand B
> J1084
> A8
> J763
> 865
> Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
> 18-19 HCP)
3NT. How else is partner going to learn to play difficult contracts?
Besides, you have lots of 8's which could be useful.
-- Adam
henry...@yahoo.com
On the first hand, I have no objection to 1s. The problem is that we
might get too high when opener has 18-19 balanced and rebids 2nt, but
on the other hand, passing with short diamonds is a good way to play
in their 9-card fit instead of ours when opener is 4=4=3=2.
On the second hand, I pass at MPs (play for the plus) but raise to 3nt
at imps (play for the vulnerable game bonus).
Henrysun909
Eric Leong
> bids.
>
> Hand A
> 107542
> Q974
> 6
> K65
> Partner deals and opens 1D. Should I pass or bid (and if so, what?).
> If I respond 1S (for example) and partner rebids 1NT, should I pass?
If you could be sure partner would keep the bidding at the two level
then there would be a stronger case for bidding 2H. However, you have
just the hand where partner is going to bid on for all the wrong
reasons. For example, give partner: S Qx H AJxx D AKxx C xxx.
He will think every thing is working in his hand and find another bid
which you don't want to happen. After all, you could have something
like: S KJxxx H KQxx D xx C xx or S KJxxx H Kxxxx D xx C
x. Also, partner could be 2-3-5-3 with something like: S xx H KJx
D AKJ10x C Qxx and 1NT is probably a better spot. Consequently, I
would pass 1NT.
>
> Hand B
> J1084
> A8
> J763
> 865
> Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
> 18-19 HCP)
> Thanks.
Well it is possible, partner could have a perfect maximum like: S xx
H KQJxx D AQx C AKx
and bidding 3NT would be right. But maybe partner with a hand this
good might just bid 3NT himself. On the other hand, partner could
have something like:
S Kx H Qxxxx D AQ C AKx
and 2NT is high enough. Consequently, I would lean towards passing 2NT
in most cases.
However, if I had a very good declarer for partner and weak opponents
I would lean more towards bidding 3NT.
Eric Leong
Frances
>
> > Hand B
> > J1084
> > A8
> > J763
> > 865
> > Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
> > 18-19 HCP)
> > Thanks.
>
> Well it is possible, partner could have a perfect maximum like: S xx
> H KQJxx D AQx C AKx
> and bidding 3NT would be right. But maybe partner with a hand this
> good might just bid 3NT himself. On the other hand, partner could
> have something like:
> S Kx H Qxxxx D AQ C AKx
> and 2NT is high enough. Consequently, I would lean towards passing 2NT
> in most cases.
I struggle with where this 'consequently' comes from. You construct
two hands, one a super-maximum where you have play for an overtrick in
3NT, and one a horrible minimum, where you will probably go off in
3NT. Why does one hand each way demonstrate that passing is correct?
If you want to come to a "proof" of the right action, surely you need
to simulate a wide range of hands and come to some more valid
statistical conclusion.
I think it's very close at matchpoints, and wouldn't argue with either
passing or raising. At imps it's clear to raise.
Adam Beneschan
> > Hand B
> > J1084
> > A8
> > J763
> > 865
> > Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
> > 18-19 HCP)
> > Thanks.
>
> Well it is possible, partner could have a perfect maximum like: S xx
> H KQJxx D AQx C AKx
> and bidding 3NT would be right. But maybe partner with a hand this
> good might just bid 3NT himself.
More likely, partner would have opened 2NT. I don't know how you play
it, but for me, 1H-1S-3NT would show a long, solid heart suit; playing
this sequence as a strong balanced hand was the norm a few decades ago
(when 2NT openers were commonly 22-24), but I think the way I play it
is more the norm now. Not that it matters---your point is still valid
despite that detail. I still bid 3NT anyway (as responder) but I know
it's a stretch, plus I know that my regular partner is a good
declarer. (Yeah, I know, +150 may still be a top at matchpoints. But
I kind of think the field will be there.)
-- Adam
Eric Leong
> > > Hand B
> > > J1084
> > > A8
> > > J763
> > > 865
> > > Partner opens 1H, it goes 1H 1S;2NT. Pass or 3NT? (Partner's 2NT is
> > > 18-19 HCP)
> > > Thanks.
>
> > Well it is possible, partner could have a perfect maximum like: S xx
> > H KQJxx D AQx C AKx
> > and bidding 3NT would be right. But maybe partner with a hand this
> > good might just bid 3NT himself. On the other hand, partner could
> > have something like:
> > S Kx H Qxxxx D AQ C AKx
> > and 2NT is high enough. Consequently, I would lean towards passing 2NT
> > in most cases.
>
> I struggle with where this 'consequently' comes from. You construct
> two hands, one a super-maximum where you have play for an overtrick in
> 3NT, and one a horrible minimum, where you will probably go off in
> 3NT. Why does one hand each way demonstrate that passing is correct?
If each hand is equally likely but in the super max case partner is
more likely to bid 3NT instead of 2NT then it is more likely that
partner has the weaker hand.
>
> If you want to come to a "proof" of the right action, surely you need
> to simulate a wide range of hands and come to some more valid
> statistical conclusion.
I try to reason how I would reason if the hand came up to me at the
table and I had to make a decision without a computer in front of me
at the table.
>
> I think it's very close at matchpoints, and wouldn't argue with either
> passing or raising.
>At imps it's clear to raise.
And just why is it "clear" to raise at imps?
What argument do you offer? None
What "proof" do you offer? None
Of course, you can assert this without a simulation but everyone
except you is held to a higher standard.
Eric Leong
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