> In article <jo4374$9v4$
1...@speranza.aioe.org>,
> removeps-groups <
removep...@yahoo.com> wrote:
>>"Mark Bole" <
ma...@pacbell.net> wrote in message
>>news:jo1mvk$1vn$1...@dont-email.me...
>>
>>> Given that the most common purpose of a 1040X is to calculate a new
>>> refund
>>> or balance due, it only makes sense to compare new amounts to the most
>>> recent return that generated a refund or balance due. Comparing to the
>>> initial return after subsequent amendments would not allow you to
>>> calculate a new refund or balance due.
>>
>>Your logic is not correct. I did the 1040-X both ways, and in the method
>>where column A is the amount in the very original return, the line 17 that
>>says amount of overpayment (which is basically the refund from the
>>oringinal
>>return) will now be that plus the refund of the first amended return. Or
>>if
>>you owed money in the first amended return, then line 17 will be refund of
>>original return minus money owed of first amended return. Either way line
>>19 and 21 work out the same.
>
>
> I have to agree with Mark here. If you did the second 1040x using
> the figures from the first 1040X, you would generally see different
> results on each 1040X.
I did it both ways and saw no difference in the end number. That's why I
asked the question in the first place. I'm not sold on the idea that one
is.