On 8/25/12 9:10 AM, ira smilovitz wrote:
> Husband and wife refinance their mortgage with wife's mother as lender. Mortgage is fully executed and recorded. It's a win/win situation - borrowers get better rate than bank offering, mother receives more interest than she was earning in the bank. Fast forward a bit - mother dies. Mortgage becomes an asset of the Estate. Wife is executrix and sole beneficiary of mother's estate. The intent is to cancel the remaining balance on the mortgage and for husband/wife to own house "free and clear".
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> If the wife cancels the mortgage in her role as executrix, is this cancellation of debt income? (There is no 1099-C filing requirement, so the IRS might never know about it. But if it were discovered and should have been reported, there would be substantial under-reporting penalties assessed.) Does the conclusion change if the wife/executor transfers the mortgage to herself as a distribution of the Estate's assets and then cancels the mortgage since she would be both creditor and debtor?
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> In case it matters, this is NOT a community property state. I'm also ignoring any diffential tax effects associated with continuing monthly payments to the Estate and taking a mortgage interest deduction on the personal return while paying tax on the interest income on the Estate's income tax return.
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> Ira Smilovitz
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My understanding is that as long as the estate is under the limit, this
year $5.12M, there's no issue at all.
In theory, what could be messy is when the loan is significant, the
estate exemption, low, and an audit would view it as an asset. I will
contrive an example:
Estate exemption is actually $1M. The mortgage is $500K, and the $20K/yr
interest is repaid with part of the $26K/yr gift mom gives the couple.
Now, mom passes. We can't ignore the $500K. If it was gift it would
count against unified credit, if not, it's an asset of the estate, and
if it puts the estate over $1M, we can't ignore it.
/end of example.
With the exemption over $5M, there's less chance there's an issue, but
no, Ira, you're not overthinking it. With how convoluted the tax code
is, I'm afraid nothing is so simple that, when present here, would
result in that accusation.
(disclaimer - when I begin an answer with "my understanding" it means I
am not 100% of my position, and am simply offering my thoughts to prompt
further discussion. It's ok if i'm mistaken, and open to why that would
be the case.)