Another one of my relatives who is under the delusion
that I am knowledgeable about taxation asked me to
post this.
Scenario:
1. Taxpayer is sole owner of S-Corp.
2. S-Corp has a $900,000 Line of Credit at Bank.
3. Line of Credit is secured by house and other assets
having a FMV in excess of the used portion of the LoC.
4. Due to losses in 2008 & 2009, Taxpayer's basis in
S-Corp is zero.
In 2010:
a. S-Corp had net income of $200,000;
b. Taxpayer received a W-2 for $300,000 and
a K-1 showing an S-Corp loss of $100,000.
c. Taxpayer paid income taxes on $200,000.
Problem:
Bank has their Tax Guy review 2010 return and he says
Taxpayer cannot take $100,000 loss because it exceeds
his basis in S-Corp.
Questions:
1. Is the $100,000 not the equivalent of an equity loan
on his house?
2. What is the Chapter and Verse that applies to this situation?
3. If the Bank's Tax Guy is correct, how should this have been
structured?
Dick
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