After the foreclosure, the house was sold at action. The auction buyer
then sold the house again to a third party. At the time of action, the
original owner (who I recorded the lien against) had owned the home for
5 years (from 1997 to 2002), so I assume the property had appreciated
in value significantly.
Do I still have a lien against this property and/or the new owners?
Or, did my lien become void when the foreclosure went through? Is it
possible to collect against the original title company or the current
owners?
Thank you in advance for your help and advice!
Your lien against the property is probably gone. If you had a lien against
the property itself, and if the property was free and clear of all other
liens including any mortgage encumbrance at the time of your filing, the
homeowner would have been unable to get a mortgage loan. So it's likely
that your lien was in second or later position. If so, your lien was wiped
out by foreclosure on the first or second lien. It is also likely that your
lien filing was not against the property itself because the property was
conveyed to the first mortgage holder by a trust deed which was recorded
before your recording. If that's the case, the homeowner didn't own legal
title to the property at the time of your filing, and your filing had no
effect on the property at all. If your lien was a mechanics lien, it would
be against the property regardless of who owned legal title. In that case,
your lien became invalid because of your failure to foreclose on it within
90 days of filing. You can find out by checking the property records in the
county recorder's office.
McGyver
Who would I contact to find out? The latest owner? The title company?