I'm interested in lojban. I hope to state complicated meanings very clearly using lojban,
and without the need for further clarifications as is common in natural languages.
A son of mine has dyslexia, and I read that languages in which each letter can only
be pronounced in one way is much easier for dyslectics to read. Sounds very plausible.
Finnish could help then. But lojban also. Further, language is really his thing. He began
to speak very young and he makes quite complicated grammatical constructions. And generally
knows the effect on meaning changing places of words have. lojban could help him to
transfer his ability in spoken language to written language. And I hope we can have some
fun together learning it.
So far for my motivation. I have some questions and remarks about lojban.
1.
'mi' in lojban means I and also we. So, here lojban is more ambiguous than english. But
lojban is supposed to be less ambiguous than english. Lojban has another 3 words for we,
meaning: me and you, you and others, me and others and not you. So 'mi' could have been
reserved for I without losing expressiveness.
I suppose this thing of lojban is because lojban leaves number open by default. 'le karci'
means the car or the cars. Does 'le pa karci' mean the car and only that, so not the cars?
If so, does 'pa mi' mean I and not we?
Why is there no article in lojban that means exactly one of something?
2.
Tense is also open by default in lojban. So 'mi klama le zarci' can mean I go to the market,
and it can mean I went to the market, and it can mean I will go the market. So this is again
more ambiguous than english. Of course there are words to specify the time, but why is
present tense not the default? Minimizing guessing using context is one of the main goals of
lojban, not?
3.
In lojban the predicate(selbri) can be put everywhere in a sentence, except at the best
place, the begin. That is the normal place for a function. And a selbri is a kind of
function. 'fa' has to be used to be able to put the selbri at the begin: klama fa mi le
zarci. Maybe another cmavo also works.
Where did it go wrong? Trying to resemble the SVO structure of english?
4.
The main effect the place structure grammar of lojban seems to have is elimination of
prepositions. I have my doubts about this. For example, compare 'I go to the market' and 'I
talk to you'. Very different things are happening, but there is also similarity. There is
a destination in both, and that is why to is used in both cases.
In the place structure grammar of lojban a place has no meaning on its own (although 1st
place is maybe always the subject). If a predicate has an argument for some sort of
destination you have to look up its place for the predicate, and also remember that place.Remembering a preposition for notating destination for each predicate seems simpler.--
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{pa le karci} or {pa karci} (if a number preceeds the bridi you don't necessarily
need an article, you can think about this as {pa lo karci}) can be used for that,
an inner quantifier is not needed here.
I'm interested in lojban. I hope to state complicated meanings very clearly using lojban,
and without the need for further clarifications as is common in natural languages.
A son of mine has dyslexia, and I read that languages in which each letter can only
be pronounced in one way is much easier for dyslectics to read. Sounds very plausible.
Finnish could help then. But lojban also. Further, language is really his thing. He began
to speak very young and he makes quite complicated grammatical constructions. And generally
knows the effect on meaning changing places of words have. lojban could help him to
transfer his ability in spoken language to written language. And I hope we can have some
fun together learning it.
So far for my motivation. I have some questions and remarks about lojban.
1.
'mi' in lojban means I and also we. So, here lojban is more ambiguous than english. But
lojban is supposed to be less ambiguous than english. Lojban has another 3 words for we,
meaning: me and you, you and others, me and others and not you. So 'mi' could have been
reserved for I without losing expressiveness.
I suppose this thing of lojban is because lojban leaves number open by default. 'le karci'
means the car or the cars. Does 'le pa karci' mean the car and only that, so not the cars?
If so, does 'pa mi' mean I and not we?
Why is there no article in lojban that means exactly one of something?
2.
Tense is also open by default in lojban. So 'mi klama le zarci' can mean I go to the market,
and it can mean I went to the market, and it can mean I will go the market. So this is again
more ambiguous than english. Of course there are words to specify the time, but why is
present tense not the default? Minimizing guessing using context is one of the main goals of
lojban, not?
3.
In lojban the predicate(selbri) can be put everywhere in a sentence, except at the best
place, the begin. That is the normal place for a function. And a selbri is a kind of
function. 'fa' has to be used to be able to put the selbri at the begin: klama fa mi le
zarci. Maybe another cmavo also works.
Where did it go wrong? Trying to resemble the SVO structure of english?
4.
The main effect the place structure grammar of lojban seems to have is elimination of
prepositions. I have my doubts about this. For example, compare 'I go to the market' and 'I
talk to you'. Very different things are happening, but there is also similarity. There is
a destination in both, and that is why to is used in both cases.
In the place structure grammar of lojban a place has no meaning on its own (although 1st
place is maybe always the subject). If a predicate has an argument for some sort of
destination you have to look up its place for the predicate, and also remember that place.Remembering a preposition for notating destination for each predicate seems simpler.
On 21.05.2013 13:25, Robert LeChevalier wrote:xorxes made that change after being asked to do so. I think PC was complaining.
selpa'i wrote:
That's exactly the part that got changed in December 2011, when the
sentence "When an outer quantifier is used without an inner quantifier,
''lo'' can be omitted." was removed. This means that "PA broda = PA lo
broda" *was* part of the original BPFK-approved proposal from '04. (the
recent change wasn't followed by another round of voting of course)
Who had the authority to make such a change?
Of course, but there is no institution left to vote on such things right now, is there?
If it isn't voted on, the change is not official, and as you can see,
people won't understand what you mean. That is WHY it is supposed to
be hard to make changes, and why they are supposed to be strictly
controlled.
Here is a relevant thread from right after the change was made: https://groups.google.com/forum/?fromgroups#!topic/lojban/XutjWBUhPMY
Please continue this discussion on the main list, if interested. It's not suited to the beginners' list in my opinion.
mu'o mi'e la selpa'i
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Hey tjerk,
On Mon, May 20, 2013 at 10:42:57AM -0700, tjerk wrote:
> A son of mine has dyslexia, and I read that languages in which each letter
> can only
> be pronounced in one way is much easier for dyslectics to read. Sounds very
> plausible.
> Finnish could help then. But lojban also.
Hm, I'm actually not sure lojban is of much help here.
Yes, audio-visual isomorphism makes reading more easy, but due
to the structure of lojban's gismu (exactly five letters including two vowels)
there are a lot of gismu which look very similar but mean entirely different
things, like dasni/dasri, festi/fetsi, ...
That again can make it much harder to read lojban.
The functions themself don't care at all. Talking about programming:
object methods usually follow their object "object.method()". W.r.t. this
usage lojban is quite natural. .u'i
Arguably, human languages most often involve talking about objects which are
topics of discourse. That is, I talk about _something_ doing something.
That can be the first thing to mention in a sentence and the way lojban does it
(if you don't use {fa} to change that)
> 4.
> The main effect the place structure grammar of lojban seems to have is
> elimination of
> prepositions. I have my doubts about this. For example, compare 'I go to
> the market' and 'I
> talk to you'. Very different things are happening, but there is also
> similarity. There is
> a destination in both, and that is why to is used in both cases.
There is a whole class/selma'o BAI which provide something more flexible
than prepositions:
Did I mention that these comparisons pe'i
are all invalid and irrational?
mu'o