Genes don't operate in that manner. They select
for 'more fitting' individuals. There are a few (nearly
all non-scientists) who believe in 'group selection'
but what you are proposing would be so wide that
hardly any of them would want to support it.
And more. Your questions need to be much more
specific and on-topic to be answerable, or before
I bother to try.
>>>>> (Note: if you think Groves is so wrong, why do you
>>>>> feel the need to misrepresent his thinking so
>>>>> incredibly badly? Even after many times being
>>>>> corrected?)
>>>>
>>>> What is the misrepresentation?
>>>
>>> Groves has never stated anything close to the idea
>>> that: whole nations of farming people regularly
>>> changed their language.
>>
>> Of course not.
>
> Then why did you say, “new students
> every year hear utter garbage from the likes
> of Groves that whole nations of farming
> people regularly changed their language?”
Groves would maintain two propositions --
which are incompatible with his theory but
which he never allows to occupy his brain
at the same time (which is why he has
ceased to respond):
a) Languages often undergo rapid and drastic
change; (note that linguists only talk of
languages changing, not of people changing
their way of speaking);
(b) The great bulk of the population of the UK
from before 1,000 BC and up to ~1850 consisted
of farmers and agricultural labourers.
When you take both (a) and (b) above together,
you get an implication that farmers, peasants etc.,
changed their way of talking at an extraordinarily
rapid rate. We all know that such a story is
absurd. So we must deny either (a) OR (b) above.
Groves (and every single one of the vast tribe of
linguists) can do neither. So we either get simple
plain abuse or silence.
The chief interest here is that it's not unlike the
Stratfordian story. That is, prima facie, a truly
ridiculous one. But what can you say when that
is pointed out? (1) You can pile abuse on the
heads of those who so inconveniently point it out;
(2) You can go silent; (3) You can endlessly
recite your ancient doctrines (or doctrinal excuses).
>> For him, and other 'scholars'
>> languages exist (and change) in their own
>> dimension. They somehow forget that real
>> people use them.
>
> You’re too vague for me to follow. Of course,
> Groves is quite aware of real people.
Find ONE linguist who discusses why and how
a real rural population would completely change
its language over a few generations.
> It wouldn’t Seem that you are, considering you actually
> believe That two populations can live together without Any
> cultural exchanges.
It depends on what you mean by 'living together'.
Did the Mongols have much effect on the
Russians (other than to make them scared of
foreigners, and too familiar with how nasty it was
to be conquered) ? Did the Russians affect the
Mongols? And so on for many (or most) such
conquests?
>>> I don't know what he said, but am sure I'm not
>>> severely wrong in saying that he believes PARTS of
>>> various tribes, communities, and other groups
>>> almost surely consisting of much more than farmers
>>> GRADUALLY changed their language
>>
>> Eh? We are talking mostly about England
>> and its supposed predominant language
>> from around 100 AD to around 1400 AD.
>> Where do these 'parts' come in?
>
> England was never homogenous. There was north and
> south, for one thing, and many different villages,
You're grasping at straws. The great bulk of
the nation was rural and agricultural. Under
the Anglo-Saxons, towns and cities were
deserted and fell into decay. Yet _this_
society is supposed to have moved from
'Brythonic' to Anglo-Saxon in a few generations;
and repeated the trick with a switch from Anglo-
Saxon to English a few hundred years later.
Parts of Scotland supposedly fitted in a switch
into Gaelic (and out of it) as well. Parts of
England supposedly fitted in a switch into
Danish and out-of-it.
You might have thought Stratfordianism utterly
daft. Standard linguistics tries hard to trump it
>>> He most certainly doesn't believe that they changed
>>> languages "for no reason and at the drop of a hat?"
>
>> He has never indicated otherwise.
>
> Right. Nor has he ever indicated that the Romans never
> Conquered Britain. What he has said or implied is that
> the language evolved.
Sure -- while somehow avoiding being
spoken by anyone in particular.
> He’s mentioned a few examples of this which clearly
> indicate that he believes the changes took place over
> generations.
No one suggests otherwise. But those theories
(standard in linguistics) would mean that the
change was so rapid that grand-parents would
often not have a clue what their grand-children
were saying. That often happens -- effectively
under compulsion, when adults migrate to new
counties. But it CAN'T happen in a static rural
society under no particular pressure. No record
of any such transition exists -- in ANY society
at ANY time.
> He has shown reasons for it
Such as?
> or directed those reading his posts to those who have
Yeah, yeah. "The answer is in a book in a
library somewhere." Even you should be
able to recognise that kind of bullshit.
> The writers I’m reading give lots of reasons for changes,
Bullshit pretend-reasons. We've already seen one.
Groves says "My name is Beowulf" _came_from_
the Anglo-Saxon "Min nama is Beowulf" rather than
having the same ancestry as the modern German
"Mein Name ist Beowulf" -- and that the 'Anglo-
Saxon origin' is so obvious that it is quite
unquestionable.
While this is a trivial example, it shows the way
his 'mind' works. First you have your doctrine.
Then you find examples to back it up. And you
never consider any other possible explanation.
> and admit to not having reasons for other changes. I’m
> just learning about these things so can’t argue for Peter,
> but I do remember that “ing” at the end of verbs was a
> change found that scholars showed was due to one
> language group’s meeting another in war or commerce,
> and influencing it to make the change— the
> Scandinavians influencing the Anglo-Saxons? I can’t
> remember. I m just trying to get a sense of the field.
Linguists play these silly games endlessly. But ask
them how a population made up of largely isolated
small groups of farmers and peasants living in
largely-isolated parishes, could or would have
changed their daily language in so short a time,
and they'll tell you (if they are honest) that they
have never -- not once in their lives -- considered
the issue. Nor have they ever seen any paper (or
even a note or a letter) in any 'learned journal' in
the vast libraries devoted to the 'discipline' ever
hint at the possibility of such a question.
>>> whether valid or not--OR admit to not knowing a
>>> reason because of lack of data (no written
>>> manuscripts or tape recordings).
>>
>> I'd be very surprised to see any such admission.
>
> Read the books Peter recommended to me. They are full
> Of such admissions.
Quote one that refers to a population of farmers
and peasants changing their language within a
few generations.
> I’ve been reading about quarks, gluons, virtual photons and
> things I consider wacky. The author of one book I finished is or
> was a key figure in the study of quarks and related particles.
> He also admitted, in the same way, what was not known,
> where several theories were in competition, etc. It’s called
> science, Paul.
Physics is a real science, in which doubt and
uncertainty are routinely expressed. Linguistics
and 'Stratfordian Studies' is the home of those who
have not a scholarly bone in their body, To them
the expression of doubt would be an admission of
failure.
Look at David Webb, if you want a classic example
of an academic without a brain but whose worthless
bum occupies a chair. He would never risk failure,
so he never does anything nor says anything nor
has an opinion on anything. And he simply cannot
grasp how there could be people in the world who
are capable of doing things or saying things or
having opinions.
[..]
>> I've said it frequently. How could a widely dispersed
>> farming community (in large isolated houses in
>> largely isolated parishes) manage to change their
>> language totally in a few generations?
>
> And you stop there, except to characterize answers
> as nonsense. Houses were not that isolated,
Tending cattle, tilling land, planting seed, weeding,
scything corn, and most other agricultural activities
are commonly done by one person or no more
than a few. Some activities -- such as harvesting
and threshing often involve groups, but not a lot of
complicated language.
> nor were parishes.
Of course they were. Why would a farmer, or
peasant or villein, or slave, have a need to visit the
next parish? Selling his produce, or buying what
items (such as candles) that he could afford, would
make trips into the local market town necessary on
occasion. But they would only be occasional.
> There were monks, minstrels, merchants, soldiers, vagabonds.
Monks stayed in their monasteries. Minstrels
worked for those who could pay -- rarely ordinary
farmers. Merchants lived in towns and cities (if
such existed). Soldiers went off to war and if they
did come back, did so years later. Effective
isolation was the general rule.
> Aside from that there is evidence that what linguists say
> happened DID happen.
Wrong -- in every respect. There is no contemporary
document about the Anglo-Saxon conquest. We have
to rely on the likes of Bede, writing a few hundred years
later. He says nothing about the language of ordinary
people, neither about that time, nor in his own. The
Anglo-Saxons were not into paper nor pens, nor towns
nor cities. The Romans did not record the barbaric
languages of those they conquered. They did not
understand them, nor discriminate between them.
> Documentary evidence of word-changes.
There were various documents from various sources,
but only from those who had literacy -- who almost
necessarily worked for the state or its institutions
(such as the Church).
> You can t explain them, the experts can.
Ridiculous. Firstly, they 'see' an absurdly fast
-- and totally inexplicable -- pace of change. (Not
realising that one gang of military overlords had
just been replaced by another, which spoke a
different language.) Secondly, they fail to notice
that it is ONLY the gang of military overloads (or
their clerks) who leave the written records.
Thirdly, they fail to understand that language change
is similar to genetic change and that language is
inherited in much the same way as genes.
Fourthly, they fail to recognise that new languages
are much more likely to arise in very small
populations in new locations (as has often been
seen as in the case of creoles) -- and may then
change scarcely at all over the next thousand
years.
I have a realistic and viable explanatory scenario.
They don't.
[..]
>>> An example: I say Shakespeare was Shakespeare
>>> because of his Stratford monument.
>>
>> One of the silliest arguments of all time. It's like
>> saying the Soviets could not have killed any
>> Polish soldiers at Katyn, because Joe Stalin
>> denied it. But what else was he going to do?
>
> My point is that I present evidence for my case.
> You then need to show why my evidence is invalid.
Wrong. This is not maths nor physics. It's history.
Your story could be completely cuckoo (as it is)
while remaining 'logical' or 'valid' -- whatever that
latter term might mean in this context.
We are seeking to present scenarios that provide
plausible explanations of a set of historical events.
I can readily show that your scenario (or theory)
is nuts, and wholly unlikely. I do it routinely:
(How many authors have had illiterate parents?
How many have had illiterate daughters?
How many forms of Renaissance (or other) art
has been financed from the pockets of the
common people? And so on and on . . . )
You never (or rarely) seek to undermine my
scenario -- but keep banging on about your
semi-Biblical beliefs, declaring that I must first
show them to be 'invalid' . . . . .
> Your analogy is so bad as to be insane. Stalin’s evidence
> That the Russians had nothing to do with the bodies at
> Katyn was his testimony. Fine. Where your analogy breaks
> down is that there was all kinds of hard evidence against
> his testimony,
The Soviets found plenty of 'evidence' FOR their
account of Katyn. They wanted to present it at
the Nuremberg trials, but were dissuaded by the
Americans and the British -- who fully knew it was
all lies.
> but none against the Shakespeare
> monument and a lot for it in the testimony of those who
> saw it, and the words of Digges in the First Folio.
Explain how the words of Digges undermine every
possible theory about a cover-up. To you, Digges
knew the Stratman personally, and had seen him
write his plays, and was utterly reliable and
honourable . . . . and would never have taken
money to suggest anything misleading? And you
know all this from . . . . ?
Paul.