I don't think it's quite this easy. The clerk is maintaining a
particular moral position about gay marriage. Let's assume that his
morality is a product of Divine Command Theory. The culture at large
maintains a different set of moral principles. He is a member of the
culture, so it *is* his business. Maybe also he believes that it's
his purpose to advocate for his understanding of Divine Command
Theory. So it's even more his business.
I think it's disingenious to mark the clerk's position up to "pure
racism" or "outrage." He may hold his position calmly and
rationally. He may argue that his moral stance, known to him through
divine command, holds greater weight than recognizing the legal rights
of others. Law does not and should not always hold precedence over
morality. The question, then, is, "does his use of position as legal
clerk and his denial of the legal rights of others make immoral what
he regards as an act done in accordance with his moral principles?"
On May 13, 7:44 pm, Prem Das <
dasp...@hotmail.com> wrote:
> Gentlemen, do you think we are overthinking this?
>
> The clerk's attitude to inter-racial marriages, is pure racism and is legally and morally reprehensible. The other is a gray area. These are decadent times. Things that were considered shameful and against the order of nature are now being flounted proudly.
>
> Whatever the case, it is none of the clerks business. He does his job for which he receives a wage, or he quits. His outrage must not be visited on others.
>
> Just my two bit's worth.
>
> Wed, 13 May 2009 16:34:42 -0700
>
>
>
>
>
> > Subject: [AskPhilosophers] Question #2664
> > From:
rob.sche...@gmail.com
> _________________________________________________________________
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