Berkeley Brett <
roya...@gmail.com> wrote:
> So, my question is, how does English get by with so few diacritical marks?
Poorly, would be the glib answer.
Another answer might point out that there actually are a number of
letters in the English alphabet that weren't in the original Latin
one, that English speakers have simply defined these as normal, and
over the last decades the rest of world has more or less come to
accept this.
Let's take a step back.
The Latin alphabet was designed to represent one language, Latin.
(That's not really true. The Ancient Roman's Latin alphabet was
already a somewhat labored adaptation of an Etrusco-Graecan alphabet
and not a precise match for Latin. But for argument's sake we can
pretend that it fit the language perfectly.)
So whenever people started using the Latin alphabet to write down
a language that was not Latin, and that distinguished different
sounds or more sounds than Latin did, they had a problem. They
came up with three basic solutions:
* Invent a new letter. You know, like ᅵ and ᅵ. Old English used
to have a few of these, but they fell out of use.
* Use a digraph or trigraph, i.e., assign a special meaning to the
combination of two or three letters, like <sh> or <th>. We are
so accustomed to this that we don't even realize what a strange
kludge it is.
* Add diacritics to an existing letter, e.g., make e, ᅵ, ᅵ stand
for [@], [e], and [E].
Most orthographies make use of more than one of those.
The three basic approaches also shade into each other in all
directions. To you, <ᅵ> may be <a> with a diacritic. To a Swede,
it's a totally separate letter, the same way we consider C and G
to be different, although the latter started out as a modified
version of the former.
Various diacritics started out as digraphs or when one letter was
written on top or under another (nn > ᅵ, ae > ᅵ, cz > ᅵ). A digraph
can also, by way of a ligature, turn into a new letter: <vv> became
<w>. This W is actually an exotic letter. Natively it is only
used in English, German, and Polish (and minor languages whose
orthography was modeled on those). Elsewhere it only pops up in
English loanwords like <whisky>. Chalk it up to Anglo-American
cultural hegemony if people accept it as a standard letter of the
Latin alphabet. Also, I/J and U/V used to be typographic variants
of the same letters, respectively, and were only split in Renaissance
times or thereabouts.
There are further orthographic tricks. You can use complex patterns,
e.g. English rod-rode, bit-bite, hat-hate, where a silent final -e
changes the vowel before the previous consonant--which is just
crazy, if you think about it. Then there is underspecification.
You simply leave it to the reader to figure out whether you meant
"read" or "read", or "present" or "present", or, systematically,
which <th> stands for [T] or [D] and which <s> for [s] or [z].
The Latin alphabet is a particular poor fit for languages rich in
vowels, like the Germanic languages, or those with distinctions
completely lacking in Latin, like palatalized vs. plain/velarized
consonants in Irish and some Balto-Slavic languages.
Diacritics are just one slice out of a complex set of workarounds
and the fact that English doesn't employ any while still making use
of other kludges is essentially a historical accident. (Somebody
with a better understanding of the development of English spelling
circa 15th century may want to jump in here.)