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ification vs ization

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ct

no leída,
3 may 2011, 6:56:50 a.m.3/5/11
para
Hello,

Is there any difference between -ification and -ization ? Are there
any rules I should follow on using -ification instead of -ization?

Thanks for any assistance,
Tung

Don Phillipson

no leída,
3 may 2011, 8:43:10 a.m.3/5/11
para
"ct" <tung...@gmail.com> wrote in message
news:447be1fb-c7fb-4ae4...@z15g2000prn.googlegroups.com...

> Is there any difference between -ification and -ization ? Are there
> any rules I should follow on using -ification instead of -ization?

No. English has no constructive rules like this (that might
prescribe how to create new words from old forms.) After
the fact, the language prefers (via usage) certain new
forms over other new forms: but this preference has
never been reduced to a rule that other English users
agree should govern future word formation.

--
Don Phillipson
Carlsbad Springs
(Ottawa, Canada)


Jerry Friedman

no leída,
3 may 2011, 2:01:31 p.m.3/5/11
para
On May 3, 4:56 am, ct <tungp...@gmail.com> wrote:
> Hello,
>
> Is there any difference between -ification and -ization ? Are there
> any rules I should follow on using -ification instead of -ization?

If there's already a verb ending in "-ify" or "-ificate", then you
should probably prefer "-ification", and the same for "-ize" (or "-
ise"). Maybe that was obvious. Otherwise I don't know. There are
other possibilities too, such as "-ation" or "-ition", especially if a
Latin origin indicates one of those choices, or just turning the word
into a verb. You might want to get advice on specific cases.

--
Jerry Friedman

Garrett Wollman

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3 may 2011, 3:53:42 p.m.3/5/11
para
In article <447be1fb-c7fb-4ae4...@z15g2000prn.googlegroups.com>,
ct <tung...@gmail.com> wrote:

>Is there any difference between -ification and -ization ? Are there
>any rules I should follow on using -ification instead of -ization?

-ificati- comes from the Latin verb "facere", to make, sometimes
through French and sometimes as a direct borrowing from scientific
Late Latin.

-iz- comes from the Greek verb-forming suffix "-izein", through Latin
and usually but not always French; "-izein" verbs in Greek became
"-izare" verbs in Latin, and "-are" verbs became "-er" verbs in French
and form nominals in "-ation".

There are, however, many neologisms featuring both of these affixes,
which have nothing to do with any Greek or Latin heritage, and other
than some English-speaker's perception of euphony there is no rhyme or
reason for the choice between them.

-GAWollman
--
Garrett A. Wollman | What intellectual phenomenon can be older, or more oft
wol...@bimajority.org| repeated, than the story of a large research program
Opinions not shared by| that impaled itself upon a false central assumption
my employers. | accepted by all practitioners? - S.J. Gould, 1993

Stephen

no leída,
3 may 2011, 7:37:52 p.m.3/5/11
para


They are both used to turn verbs into nouns, but I learned which ones to
use by rote. I don't know the rules, if any.

specify specification
specialise specialisation
deify deification
realise realisation

See any pattern?


--
Stephen
Ballina, NSW

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