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orofacial versus genital type 1 and type 2 help!

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tsan...@usit.net

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Feb 18, 1996, 3:00:00 AM2/18/96
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please explain....can the type 1 virus, fever blisters, be transmitted orally
to a woman's vagina? and if so, will the symptoms be the same as if she
had contracted the virus sexually?

in other words, are they not two separate viruses? my wife of 12 years just
had a severe outbreak in the vagina area, and claims she got it from me because
of my fever blisters, which i never had til i met her.....any info would be
appreciated......her doctor took one look and gave her a moral tongue lashing,
prescribed zovirax , and she cleared up......what are the odds that i gave it
to her orally? thanks for your help!

denise

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Feb 20, 1996, 3:00:00 AM2/20/96
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Yes, oral herpes can be transmitted to the genitals during an outbreak.
As to who had it first, that's questionable. If your wife was
asymptomatic, then she could have given it to you first. I had gotten
genital herpes from a man that was totally asymptomatic. On the other
hand, you could have been the one that was asymptomatic until your cold
sores started appearing. It's really a toss up at this point, and let's
face it, both of you have it now, so there's really no point in trying
to accuse one another. It takes a while to adjust to the reality of the
situation, but you're both in it together.

I strongly recommend a quarterly news letter put out by the Herpes
Research Center called "the Helper". It contains the latest facts and
answers questions such as yours.

For further information on the program and materials available, send a
self-addressed, stamped envelope to:
HRC
P.O. Box 13827
Research Triangle Park, NC 27709

Or send a check for $25 and they'll start the subscription.

Jackie Bilodeau

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Feb 21, 1996, 3:00:00 AM2/21/96
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In article <tsandrel.7...@usit.net> tsan...@usit.net writes:
>From: tsan...@usit.net
>Subject: orofacial versus genital type 1 and type 2 help!
>Date: Sun, 18 Feb 1996 16:36:04


First of all there are two types of herpes, there is Herpes I, which is
primarily found in the mouth and lips and there is Herpes II which is
primarily found in the genital area. However, both forms of herpes can be
spread to the other area. Herpes 2 can be spread to mouth area thru oral
sex with someone who has genital herpes. And Herpes 1 can be transfered to
the genital area by oral sex. I don't know first hand, but I've heard that
Herpes 2 outbreaks wherever they occur are more painful. What I'd like to
know is what right did that doctor have to give your wife a "moral tongue
lashing". I'd see about getting a new physician.

Good luck and be careful.

Alison K. Burke

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Feb 22, 1996, 3:00:00 AM2/22/96
to
yes! yes! and yes! I can address this one from personal
experience. To put it simply: cold sores are a type of herpes
virus and can be transmitted to the genitals through
oral/genital contact. The reverse is also possible...someone
can contract "oral herpes" from oral contact with the infected
genitals of a partner. The "type" of herpes, ie 1 versus 2 is
not tied to the location since either one can be
found/transmitted to either place. The symptoms are the same
since it is the same virus. Acyclovir is great for preventing
outbreaks and your wife will probably want some to lessen the
severity of outbreaks. I would suggest, however, that she find
a less judgemental and obnoxious physician who feels that it is
his/her duty to give someone with herpes or any other condition
for that matter a "moral tongue lashing". It isn't anyone's
fault and if this information were more commonly known then far
fewer people would be suffering. Tell that idiot doctor to
help people prevent the transmission of the virus not punish
someone who has contracted the virus.

Good luck!
--
Alison Burke
ak...@virginia.edu

Tim Fitzmaurice

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Feb 23, 1996, 3:00:00 AM2/23/96
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On Sun, 18 Feb 1996 tsan...@usit.net wrote:

> please explain....can the type 1 virus, fever blisters, be transmitted orally
> to a woman's vagina? and if so, will the symptoms be the same as if she
> had contracted the virus sexually?

Yes to both questions, the difference in site between the two Herpes
Simplex viruses is a historical one, not a matter of biological ability
Ever since the 60s that distinction has been blurring, though it's still
a prevalence


>
> in other words, are they not two separate viruses? my wife of 12 years just

They are two seperate, but very similar viruses.

> had a severe outbreak in the vagina area, and claims she got it from me because
> of my fever blisters, which i never had til i met her.....any info would be

Very possible.....somewhere between 40-80% of people cary HSV1, and it
can stay latent for a very long time...if it then appears for some reason
you get cold sores. Which can then be passed to someone else.

> appreciated......her doctor took one look and gave her a moral tongue lashing,

The doctor has some very old ideas about the herpesviruses then. The
classical distinctions hold less and less as time goes by.


> prescribed zovirax , and she cleared up......what are the odds that i gave it
> to her orally? thanks for your help!

Right medicine, if it stops working there are others to transfer to.

Tim

Martin J. Guillot

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Feb 26, 1996, 3:00:00 AM2/26/96
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I know that oral herpes can be transmitted to the genitals. The symptoms would
be similar. By the way, any doctor that would give your wife a moral tongue
lashing because of that need an ethical tongue lashing. (I would complain to
the AMA).


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